IT examen les plus récentes et les plus efficaces des questions et réponses: 三月 2014

2014年3月31日星期一

C-TSCM42-66 dernières questions d'examen certification SAP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: C-TSCM42-66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which types of objects can be changed with Engineering Change Management (ECM)?(Choose
three)
A. Task list
B. Work center
C. Production version
D. Bill of material
E. Material master
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 You want to enhance the system statuses of a production order with user statuses.
How do you do this?
A. Define the user statuses in the order type-dependent parameters.
B. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the production scheduling profile.
C. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the order type.
D. Define the user statuses in the Customizing table of the system statuses.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following scheduling types can only be used in capacity planning?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to use the function "Read PP master data" in the production order.
However, while calling the function you receive an error message.
What could be the reason?
A. The material availability check has been performed.
B. Goods movements have been posted.
C. The production order has been released.
D. Order papers have been printed.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which activity can trigger an automatic availability check for the components of a production
order?
A. Material staging
B. Order rescheduling
C. Order release
D. Goods receipt for a missing part
Answer: C

SAP   C-TSCM42-66   C-TSCM42-66

NO.6 Which of the following master data can be used with process orders?(Choose three)
A. Serial numbers
B. Master recipes
C. Resources
D. Production/resource tools
E. Production versions
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.7 You want to use the different options for planning in SAP ECC.
What is the correct sequence of the planning procedures?
A. Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Long-term planning -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
B. Demand management -> Sales and operations planning -> Capacity planning -> Long-term
planning -> Material requirements planning
C. Material requirements planning -> Demand management -> Sales and operations planning ->
Long-term planning -> Capacity planning
D. Long-term planning -> Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
Answer: A

SAP   C-TSCM42-66   C-TSCM42-66   C-TSCM42-66   C-TSCM42-66

NO.8 The final assembly of a finished product should only be triggered when a customer order
arrives.
Which planning strategy for the finished product do you use?
A. Planning with make-to-stock (strategy 10)
B. Planning at the assembly level (strategy 70)
C. Planning without final assembly (strategy 50)
D. Planning with final assembly (strategy 40)
Answer: C

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NO.9 In the Customizing for requirements planning, a project team notices that the alternatives P1,
P2, P3 and P4 are also delivered as standard in addition to MRP type PD. The number in each of
these alternatives represents a firming type.
What does a firming type define?(Choose two)
A. Handling existing procurement proposals outside the planning time fence.
B. Handling existing procurement proposals within a planning time fence.
C. Handling new requirements within the planning time fence.
D. Handling new procurement proposals that need to be created due to new requirements within
the planning time fence.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which objects can affect the calculation of capacity requirements for an operation?(Choose
three)
A. Standard values (routing)
B. In-house production time (material master)
C. Transport time (routing)
D. Formulas (work center)
E. Operation control key (routing)
Answer: A,D,E

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C_A1FIN_10 dernières questions d'examen certification SAP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: C_A1FIN_10
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financials with SAP Business All-in-One Solution Exam)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which currency types are available for budgeting on internal orders? (Choose three)
A. Controlling area currency
B. Object currency
C. Company code currency
D. Freely-definable currency
E. Transaction currency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 During the preparation phase, you create a project charter and define project standards and
procedures. These elements give the project manager the authority to conduct a project within
scope, quality, time, and cost and resource constraints.
Which approach would you recommend for scope change requests?
A. Since the project is a fixed scope project, reject all scope change requests.
B. Only accept scope change requests after integration and acceptance tests.
C. Collect scope change requests and hand them over to development immediately.
D. Document scope change requests according to the change requests plan and decide on
realization.
Answer: D

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6. Which components are part of the SAP Business All-in-One solutions? (Choose three)
A. Preconfigured business processes
B. Help portal
C. NetWeaver Business Client
D. Documentation and training material
E. GuiXT
Answer: A,C,D

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7. How do you use the Solution Builder to package your own solution? (Choose two)
A. Add a Customizing step to your building blocks using a report.
B. Use solution builder to automatically transfer a solution into a new scenario map.
C. Export the structure of your solution into an xml file.
D. Create building blocks that contain your delta settings.
Answer: C,D

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8. The ASAP Focus Methodology defines a proposal framework as an accelerator to help you
produce the proposal document during the evaluation phase.
Which document is part of the proposal framework?
A. Sales presentations
B. Marketing collateral
C. Customer qualification questionnaire
D. Solution scope document
Answer: D

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9. Which "additional" planning method is available for internal orders if you have information
about sources of supply and vendors' prices based on quantities?
A. Unit cost planning
B. Activity input planning
C. Overall planning
D. Primary cost planning
Answer: A

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10. Along with SAP NetWeaver Business Client (NWBC), SAP provides a NWBC demo kit for
partners. This contains the welcome page and workbenches to enhance the user interface.
What are the required steps to install and run the NWBC demo kit? (Choose three)
A. Configure the user interface according to your specific needs.
B. Import the transport request from the NWBC demo kit into your system.
C. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Help Portal under alias /bestpractices.
D. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Service Portal under alias /bestpractices.
E. Order the NWBC demo kit per OSS message with reference to SAP Note 1040010.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 When a document is posted, a number is assigned to that document.
Where does this number come from?
A. Document source
B. Document area
C. Document type
D. Posting key
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you make a change to an asset, at what point does the planned depreciation change in
Asset Accounting?
A. After a posting to a fixed asset
B. After depreciation is run and posted to the general ledger
C. After depreciation is run without being posted
D. After depreciation is run and posted to the fixed assets ledger
Answer: A

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NO.5 SAP Best Practices are preconfigured packages that can be used for different purposes in
various phases of an implementation project.
Why would you set up a system by activating an SAP Best Practices package? (Choose two)
A. To introduce new functions that are not offered in the Business Suite
B. To accelerate the implementation of SAP applications
C. To quickly set up a prototype system for specification workshops, trainings, and demos
D. To correct settings in a productive system
Answer: B,C

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Code d'Examen: 100-045
Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Certified Storage Professional)
Questions et réponses: 89 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the maximum tape block size supported by OneFS 6.5.? (Choose 1)
A. 8 K
B. 64 KB
C. 128 KB
D. 256 KB
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are configuring a synchronization between two clusters using SyncIQ. You re root directory is
/ifs/data. You create an include statement for /ifs/data/media and an exclude statement of /ifs/data/public.
What will be synchronized to the other cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Nothing will be synchronized.
B. Everything in the ifs/data folder will be synchronized.
C. Everything in the ifs/data folder except the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
D. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder and the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
E. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder will be synchronized.
F. Everything in the ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
Answer: E

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NO.3 How does an Isilon cluster running OneFS 6.5 enable file level access to Windows clients? (Choose 1)
A. Using SMB only
B. Using CIFS and SMB
C. Using CIFS and Samba
D. Using CIFS only
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of nodes supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. 48
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
E. 144
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes a Network Provisioning rule? (Choose 1)
A. You can define one subnet per cluster and one pool per subnet.
B. You can define one subnet per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
C. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and one pool per subnet.
D. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How do you enable anti-virus scanning service for an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Click Enable on the Anti-virus Summary page
B. Install an ICAP server
C. Configure all of the settings on the Anti-virus Summary page
D. Install an ICMP server
Answer: C

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NO.7 What should you name the account that runs the Isilon for vCenter Plug-in? (Choose 1)
A. vapi
B. api
C. vCenter
D. vm
Answer: A

Isilon   certification 100-045   100-045   100-045

NO.8 The unlicensed version of SmartPools enables you to do what? (Choose 1)
A. Automatically move files from one disk pool to another
B. Define a subgroup of nodes to allow 12000X nodes and 36000X nodes to reside in a single disk pool
C. Force writes into the virtual hard disks.
D. Block manually configured file policies.
Answer: B

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NO.9 How are disk pools provisioned? (Choose 1)
A. The cluster automatically creates disk pools.
B. By network provisioning rules.
C. By disk provisioning rules.
D. They must be manually created.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When representing a cluster protection level as N+M:B, what is B? (Choose 1)
A. The number of recoverable disk failures.
B. The number of data blocks.
C. The number of recoverable node failures.
D. The number of data stripes.
Answer: C

certification Isilon   100-045   100-045

NO.11 When setting a new disk pool protection level, what should the administrator do to apply the new
protection level to existing data? (Select the best answer.)
A. The administrator should run the isi protect command to apply the new protection level.
B. The administrator should run the isi migrate command to apply the new protection level.
C. Nothing. The cluster applies the new protection level automatically to existing data.
D. Nothing. You cannot apply new protection level settings until you complete an entire cluster reboot.
Answer: C

Isilon   100-045   100-045   100-045

NO.12 Which of the following directory services is not supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. NIS
D. NIS+
E. All are supported.
Answer: D

Isilon   certification 100-045   certification 100-045   100-045

NO.13 The NLM protocol is used in some NFS client connections.
What does the NLM protocol do? (Choose 1)
A. Provides file locks for NFS v2 and 3 clients
B. Provides file locks for CIFS clients
C. Provides file locks for NFS v2, 3, and 4 clients
D. Provides file locks for SMB v1,2, and 3 clients
Answer: A

Isilon   100-045   100-045   100-045

NO.14 What are versions of NFS are enabled by default in an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Versions 1 and 2
B. Versions 1, 2, and 3
C. Versions 2 and 3
D. Versions 3 and 4
E. Versions 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

Isilon   100-045 examen   100-045   100-045   100-045 examen

NO.15 For what reasons would you increase the default Ethernet frame MTU on an Isilon cluster? (Choose 3.)
A. To match the frame size of the client system.
B. To improve overall performance.
C. To increase the LUN I/O performance.
D. There is no good reason to change the default Ethernet frame size. It is automatically optimized for
performance.
E. To provide easier trace captures.
Answer: A,B,C

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Avaya 132-S-712, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-712
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.2 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.3 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.4 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-712 examen   132-S-712   132-S-712 examen   132-S-712

NO.5 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

Avaya examen   132-S-712   certification 132-S-712   certification 132-S-712

NO.6 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.Hierarchy Manager
Answer:D

certification Avaya   132-S-712   132-S-712 examen

NO.7 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio? (Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

Avaya examen   132-S-712   certification 132-S-712   certification 132-S-712

NO.8 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

Avaya   132-S-712   certification 132-S-712

NO.9 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

Avaya examen   132-S-712 examen   132-S-712   certification 132-S-712

NO.10 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

Avaya   certification 132-S-712   132-S-712 examen   132-S-712

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-712.2
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

Avaya examen   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.2 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio? (Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

Avaya   certification 132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.3 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

Avaya   certification 132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2 examen

NO.4 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

Avaya   certification 132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2

NO.5 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

Avaya   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2

NO.6 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2

NO.7 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

Avaya examen   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.8 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2 examen

NO.9 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2 examen   132-S-712.2 examen   132-S-712.2

NO.10 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.Hierarchy Manager
Answer:D

Avaya examen   132-S-712.2 examen   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2 examen

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-900
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam )
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

132-S-900 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/132-S-900.html

NO.1 .The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which configuration?
A. Voice Bearer over ATM
B. Stand Alone (S87xx only)
C. Traditional G3R without IP
D. Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-900   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900

NO.2 .If a customer has multiple systems from different vendors and wants to network them together,
which software should be used?
A. DCS
B. ARS
C. UDP
D. QSIG
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 132-S-900   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.3 .A sales engineer completes an S87xx Media Server/G650 Media Gateway design which includes
IP Telephony, multi-locations, and LAN/WAN integration. One of the deliverables for handoff to the
implementation team is the network region design. What four IP endpoint characteristics may be
included in the network region design document? (Choose four.)
A. Codec set
B. UDP port ranges
C. 802.1p/Q settings
D. VLAN assignments
E. Identification of locations
Answer: A,B,C,E

certification Avaya   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.4 .You have a corporate site with an S87xx Media Server in location A, and a remote site with an
G700/S8300 LSP processor in Location B. The WAN connection goes down. In what sequence
will the G700 register with the S8300?
A. Each H.248 gateway will reboot and register with the S8300 LSP when it comes back up.
B. The S8300 LSP processor reboots, and then notifies each H.248 gateway it is now the primary
call processor.
C. The S8300 LSP processor notifies each H.248 gateway in the media controller list that it is now
the primary call processor.
D. Each H.248 gateway will detect that the S87xx Media Server is not available and will reregister
with the next Media Server in the media controller list.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900

NO.5 .Your client is considering a VoIP application for their S8500 Media Server and G650 Media
Gateway. Due to the time-sensitive nature of VoIP applications, several issues should be
discussed prior to arriving at a final design. Which two VoIP guidelines should you discuss with the
customer? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP should be implemented on an entirely switched network.
B. VoIP will cause some discourse due to lower voice quality than TDM calls.
C. VoIP endpoints should be placed on separate subnets or VLANs based on communities of
interest.
D. When PCs are attached to IP phones, the uplink to the Ethernet switch should be at least 20
Mbps.
Answer: A,C

certification Avaya   132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900

NO.6 .Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP Telephony endpoints are connected to 10 digital sets, 10 IP sets,
and 5 CO trunks. How many TN2602 Media Processor boards are required if G.729 is
incorporated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 132-S-900   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900 examen

NO.7 A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya G700 Gateways at remote
locations. Each G700 Gateway will include an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and
approximately 75 IP sets incorporating G.711. What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with
the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost?
A. Local CLAN board
B. Alternate Gatekeeper
C. S8300 Auto-Registration
D. Gateway Alternate Redirection
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-900   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.8 .Your client's department store business has 24 locations worldwide. Each location has its own
communications switch and is included in a QSIG network. The stores have standardized on
specific extension numbers representing departments. The client is considering moving to a
single, distributed S8700 system but is concerned with the loss of dial plan functionalities. How do
you address the client's concern?
A. Provide Uniform Dial Plan software
B. Utilize ACM Multi-location Dial Plan software
C. Create unique extensions per location for each application
D. Relate that standard S87xx dial plan software will address the issues
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-900   132-S-900 examen

NO.9 .You are preparing to design an IP Telephony-based S87xx. You are assisting the client in
determining the type of QoS/CoS they should incorporate on their data network. What do you
recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Routed networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
C. Mixed networks should use either DSCP or IEEE 802.1p/Q.
D. Routed networks should useDiffServ Code Points (DSCP).
Answer: B,D

certification Avaya   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900   132-S-900 examen

NO.10 .A customer is looking to add a remote location to the S8730. They will have six IP telephones that
will require PoE, two analog CO lines and require basic survivability. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A. G250 - analog / SLS
B. G250 - analog / LSP
C. G350 - analog / SLS
D. IG550 / SLS
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-900 examen   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.11 .A customer has an Avaya S87xx Media Server with an Avaya G650 Media Gateway. They want
the remote site tied-in to the main. The remote site has a DSL line for Internet Access. They
currently have a secure VPN tunnel to the main site and want to implement VoIP over this tunnel.
What is your biggest concern as a designer?
A. NAT issues
B. Implementation issues
C. Security cannot be guaranteed
D. Voice quality cannot be guaranteed
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.12 .Which two design issues relate to increasing security in VoIP converged solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Suggesting upgrading LAN switches to supportQoS
B. Defining VLANs to limit access from specific IP endpoints
C. Considering encryption on IP calls for protection from eavesdropping
D. Considering G.729 compression to protect IP calls from eavesdropping
Answer: B,C

certification Avaya   132-S-900   132-S-900   certification 132-S-900

NO.13 .The customer has a multi node LAN with connectivity to a 16 location multi-vendor (Juniper, Cisco,
3Com and Avaya) WAN. When implementing VoIP on this network, which two routing protocols
should be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. ID 10t
D. OSPF
Answer: A,D

Avaya   132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.14 .Which three are QoS/CoS recommendations that the Avaya Solution Designer can make to
optimize an all Avaya Converged IP Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Routed networks should useDiffServ Code Points.
C. Port priority can also be used to enhance 802.1p/Q andDiffServ.
D. Mixed networks should choose only one (802.1p/Q or DSCP) as a best practice.
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   132-S-900 examen   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.15 .Which three should be investigated when validating a wireless network design? (Choose three.)
A. Installed ductwork and walls
B. Locations of network servers
C. Other wireless networks in the area
D. Operating system of user machines
E. Environmental, moisture, temperature variations
Answer: A,C,E

Avaya   132-S-900   132-S-900   132-S-900

NO.16 .A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. They are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose
two.)
A. Overvoltage
B. Overheating
C. Undervoltage
D. High humidity
Answer: A,B

Avaya   132-S-900   132-S-900 examen

NO.17 .In discussing an organization's DHCP strategy, you find they distribute IP address assignment for
IP telephones at the branch location via the telephony gateway. Which two gateways are viable
options to support the customer's DHCP strategy? (Choose two.)
A. G250 Media Gateway
B. G350 Media Gateway
C. G650 Media Gateway
D. G700 Media Gateway
Answer: A,B

Avaya examen   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900

NO.18 .Your customer solution requirements call for a mix of SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which entity in the
SIP Infrastructure can perform routing of sessions invitations, authentications and accounting
functions?
A. SIP Proxy
B. SIP redirect
C. SIP registrar
D. SIP media gateway controller
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-900   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900   certification 132-S-900

NO.19 In a distributed S87xx Media Server system with G650 Media Gateways in 3 port networks, what
is the distance concern with the TDM cable length?
A. Due to the length of the TDM cable, the slack must be coiled and secured to the back of the
PN.
B. The TDM cable can be ordered to custom fit the system. The designer must know the PN to
G650 layout.
C. If the incorrect cable length attribute is chosen, it will not allow the associated G650s to connect
to the PN.
D. Due to its limited length, each G650 of a PN must be co-located in the same 19 inch data rack
as the rest of the PN.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-900 examen   132-S-900   certification 132-S-900   certification 132-S-900

NO.20 .An RFP for a Interactive Voice Response (IVR) unit and mid-sized communication system has
been released. You are responsible for determining the design solution. The RFP states that the
IVR platform must be engineered to handle 135 25-second messages during the busy hour. You
calculate this requirement to equal 47 ports. If you provide 47 ISDN PRI trunks (two ISDN PRI
facilities), which two traffic concerns must you consider? (Choose two.)
A. No trunk growth is available on the ISDN PRI facilities.
B. 47 active trunks overload the two ISDN PRI facilities, seriously affecting traffic load and call
completions.
C. Considering there is only one channel for signaling, a backup D channel cannot be provided,
affecting traffic if the D channel fails.
D. ISDN PRI facilities direct from the central office limit the caller's ability to connect to the proper
resource, causing increased usage.
Answer: A,C

Avaya   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900   certification 132-S-900   132-S-900

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Code d'Examen: 3000.2
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (ACSS Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to implement the new tourist information center (TIC) in Milan. The requirement is to have an
Auto Attendant that can supply up to three levels (caller can choose option 1, then 2, and finally option 3)
for 10 different information groups such as City Guides, "points of view", Hotels with available room, etc.
An additional requirement is to have the voicemail to email option for all people working at the TIC of
Milan.
Which IP Office version will meet these requirements for the least cost?
A. IP Office Preferred Edition
B. IP Office Preferred Edition and IP Office Advanced Edition
C. IP Office Essential Edition
D. IP Office Advanced Edition
E. IP Office Basic Edition
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 3000.2   3000.2 examen   3000.2   3000.2

NO.2 Call routing in a multi site SCN solution needs careful planning to prevent which three.? (Choose three.)
A. VCM resources are not over subscribed.
B. VMPro ports are not over subscribed.
C. Trunk ports are not over subscribed.
D. ACD routes are not compromised.
E. Calls are not tromboned.
Answer: A,B,C

certification Avaya   certification 3000.2   certification 3000.2   3000.2 examen   certification 3000.2   3000.2

NO.3 Which two cards can give the IP500 control unit the full ability to interface to a T1/E1 ISDN trunk
without additional licenses? (Choose two.)
A. IP 500 PRI U
B. Voice Compression Module
C. ISDN U
D. PRI 24/30
E. Legacy Carrier Card
Answer: D,E

certification Avaya   3000.2   3000.2   3000.2 examen

NO.4 A customer has opened up a new location in London that will have four employees. They want to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed for over a
year without any software revisions. The employees in London will use the New York City location for all
outbound and inbound calls and want to be able to dial any extension at either location.
What should you recommend for this customer?
A. Install an IP500 with four digital phones in London and use short codes to dial across the H.323 IP
trunk to connect back to New York City.
B. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and create a VPN connection between London and New
York City with firewalls at both locations using double network address translations.
C. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to connect back to
New York City to dial out of New York City.
D. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in New York City and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to connect
back to London to dial out of London.
Answer: C

Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2   3000.2

NO.5 Your customer has requested that you implement a plan to give their two sites complete resiliency.
Which two will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Resiliency License
B. IP Phones with backup call server
C. IP500v2 with redundant processor
D. Preferred Edition
Messaging at both locations
Answer: B,D

Avaya   certification 3000.2   certification 3000.2

NO.6 A client requests VoiceMail Pro with UMS to be installed. During the installation process the option for
UMS does not appear.
What is the cause?
A. The UMS service is installed automatically.
B. The UMS licenses have not been loaded.
C. The server platform does not meet the requirements.
D. The Windows account does not have permission.
Answer: C

Avaya examen   3000.2 examen   3000.2   3000.2

NO.7 A customer is requesting space required for an IP500 and expansion modules. IT says that they have
12U space (2U = 73mm / 2.9") available in their rack. 35 DS phones and 30 analog phones are required.
The customer also has one analog trunk. In case of power failure, one analog phone has to ring. The
VMPRO server takes 4U space on the rack.
What is the minimum space required for the IP Office?
A. 2U
B. 6U
C. 8U
D. 12U
Answer: B

Avaya   3000.2 examen   3000.2   3000.2   3000.2

NO.8 Which two licenses are required to support an Interactive Voice Response (IVR) and Text To Speech
(TTS) enabled auto attendant? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Essential System license
B. IP Office Preferred System license
C. IP Office Advanced System license
D. VMPro TTS (Generic)
E. Database license
Answer: B,C

certification Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2   certification 3000.2

NO.9 Which three requirements are collected during the Infrastructure Data Gathering phase? (Choose
three.)
A. Productivity Requirements
B. Physical Layer: Existing Telecom Infrastructure
C. Above Physical Layer: Existing Data Network
D. Line of Business application integration needs
E. Current PBX/Key System Features and Dial Plan
Answer: B,C,E

certification Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2   3000.2   3000.2   3000.2

NO.10 A customer has opened up another location in London that will have four employees and wants to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed for over a
year without any software revisions.
Which two solutions do you recommend for the London location? (Choose two.)
A. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 and the 12 port Ethernet switch on a UPS, ground the IP500,
upgrade the IP500 to the same version as the IP500 in New York City, install four digital phones, and
verify the correct software version on the phones.
B. Install the IP500 with VCM 32, add a digital station module on the IP500, Put the IP500 and the DS
module on a UPS, earth ground the IP500 and the digital station module, match the IP500 and DS
module with the version level with New York City and install the four digital phones.
C. Install four digital phones and create a VPN connection between London and New York City for the
digital phones to connect back to the digital station module in New York City.
D. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 on a UPS, a 12 port POE switch on a UPS, earth ground the IP500,
match the IP Office version level with New York City, install four IP Phones, and verify the correct
software version on the IP phones.
Answer: B,D

Avaya   3000.2   3000.2

NO.11 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need phones, voicemail, and meet me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will also use it for
inbound and outbound calls. The main site has forty users and one fax machine. The remote site has
fifteen users and one fax machine.
Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site to support all digital phones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
Answer: D

Avaya   3000.2   3000.2

NO.12 In Windows Services, which tab would you use to allow the VoiceMail Pro service to run as a specific
user?
A. General
B. Advanced
C. Log On
D. Dependencies
E. User
Answer: C

Avaya   3000.2 examen   3000.2   3000.2   certification 3000.2

NO.13 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. 1151D1 Individual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery Backup
C. Class "A" 24 volt power supply
D. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
Answer: B,D

certification Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2   3000.2 examen

NO.14 A customer is running SIP phones that are locked down to G.729a.
What is the bandwidth used for the speech of ten simultaneous calls?
A. 63 Kbps
B. 80 Kbps
C. 560 Kbps
D. 640 Kbps
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2   certification 3000.2

NO.15 Which supported hardware is needed to protect an analog extension port that is in a different building
than the control unit?
A. ITWLinx towerMAX DS/2
B. Analog surge protector
C. ITWLinx towerMAX SCL/8
D. IP Office Barrier Box
Answer: D

Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2   3000.2

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Code d'Examen: 6005.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 67 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is preparing to install software on the CPMG Server and would like to display the boot
sequence on the system terminal for the BIOS ROM, and Operating System Which port on the CPMG
services this information?
A. Frontface TTY Port 2
B. Frontface TTY Port 1
C. Backplane 3-port connection TTY Port 0
D. Frontface Embedded LAN (ELAN) port0
Answer: B

Avaya   6005.1   6005.1 examen   6005.1 examen

NO.2 A Customer has deployed a Communication Server000 Rls. 7.0 system at their site Their states
department is expanding and has asked that five new telephones be added with the same capabilities as
the existing telephones in the department Which programming command should be used to complete this
task?
A. Move to DN
B. Move form TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 6005.1   6005.1 examen   6005.1   certification 6005.1

NO.3 A technician has previously scheduled Subscriber Manager to build a new telephone account for the
subscriber John Smith at midnight. However, the next morning it is discovered an account has not been
provisioned What should be done next?
A. Look at ss_common logs in Linux base
B. Within UCM, look at OAM logs under Tools->logs
C. Within UCM, look at Security Event logs under Tools-> logs
D. Look at cs_console logs in Linux base
Answer: B

Avaya   6005.1   6005.1   6005.1   6005.1

NO.4 A technician is upgrading an exiting option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 7.0 standard Availability with a single Media Gateway 1000E chasses . A CPMG, Co-Resident Server
card is being deployed during the upgrade. This is a stand-alone system that is not part of a larger
network so the CPMG will act as its own Primary Security Server Which supplication deployment
combination will be deployed on the CPMG server for this customer?
A. CS+SS+EM
B. CS+SS+SIPL
C. CS+SS
D. CS+SS+NRS
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 6005.1   6005.1   certification 6005.1

NO.5 A technician is planning to implement a single IP telephony node for a Co-Resident Communication
Server (CS) 1000E system at release 7.0 Which components can be configured within the node?
A. Virtual trunk gateways, virtual loops, Personal directory, IM and presence publisher
B. SMRN for MAS, SIP Line Gateway, Personal Directory
C. IP Media services, SIP Line Gateway, Personal directory, SIP Gateway
D. SIP Line Gateway, TPS, Personal directory, AML link, Voice gateway codecs
Answer: C

Avaya examen   6005.1   certification 6005.1   6005.1 examen   6005.1

NO.6 A customer has asked if the Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls, 7.0 system can prowde Executive
users with the ability to selectively drop people that have been added to a conference Based on the
print-outs and assuming the CSD Key has been programmed and the Class of Service assigned is CDCA
which capabilities are current available to the user of extension 2006?
A. The user can not see the conference display count or selectively disconnect callers
B. The user can see the conferee display count and can selectively disconnect callers
C. The user can see the conferee display count but can not selectively disconnect callers
D. The user cannot see the conferee display count but can selectively disconnect callers
Answer: B

Avaya examen   6005.1 examen   6005.1 examen   6005.1 examen

NO.7 A CUSTOMER WITH A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 with two IPMGs is upgrading their
system to release 7.0 The upgraded system will have two IP Media Gateways Which two statements are
true regarding DSP resources for the IP Media Gateways in the upgraded system? (Choose two)
A. DSP resources are no longer required for inter-IPMG calls
B. DSP resources are localized to a particular IPMG where the DSP resource is located
C. DSP resources are considered system resources and are not localized to a particular chassis
D. DSP resources are required for TDM to IP calls
Answer: B, D

Avaya examen   6005.1 examen   6005.1   6005.1 examen

NO.8 A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Ris.7.0 system at their site, and have
asked that a swap using the using the Element Manager Pones tool on the two telephone sets shown in
the print-out be performed What should the customer be told regarding this request?
A. These two telephones cannot be swapped because they do not have compatible TN types
B. These two telephones can be swapped because they are both assigned to TGAR 1
C. These two telephones can be swapped because they both have the same VCE Class of service
D. These two telephones can not be swapped because they are not in the same Call Pickup group
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 6005.1   6005.1 examen   6005.1   6005.1

NO.9 A customer has installed a Media Gateway Controller (MGC) and would like to change the baud rite
settings for the SDI ports, The bind rates for all Serial Data Interface (SDI) ports on the MGC are
configurable through Call Server Which overlay is used to configure the MGC SDI ports?
A. LD 137
B. LD 117
C. LD 97
D. LD 17
Answer: D

certification Avaya   6005.1   6005.1   certification 6005.1

NO.10 A customer purchased a new Communication Server 1000E SA system with five media gateways which
include MG 1: CPMG (Call Server, Signaling Server, Media Gateway Controller) MG2: Media Gateway
Controller MG3: Media Gateway Controller MG4: Media Gateway Controller MG5: Media Gateway
Controller Which statement is true regarding the configuration of Media Gateway 1.?
A. The Call Server and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address
B. The Call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address.
C. The Call Server and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
D. The call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 7004.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 7004.1   7004.1   7004.1 examen   7004.1 examen

NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

Avaya   7004.1 examen   certification 7004.1   certification 7004.1

NO.3 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

Avaya examen   7004.1   7004.1 examen   7004.1   7004.1

NO.4 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 7004.1   certification 7004.1

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s d i a li ng p l an sho w n i n t he exh i b it and an exa m p l e f o r it s r equ ir e m en t s :
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

Avaya   7004.1 examen   7004.1   7004.1   7004.1 examen   7004.1

NO.6 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

Avaya examen   7004.1   certification 7004.1   7004.1 examen

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 7004.1   7004.1   7004.1 examen

NO.8 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

Avaya   7004.1 examen   7004.1   certification 7004.1   certification 7004.1

NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s D I D r ange t o t he A tt endan t.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

Avaya examen   7004.1 examen   7004.1   7004.1 examen

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s p r og r a mm ed da t abase sho w n i n t he exh i b it and AC 1 = 9 , ove r w h i ch R L I w ill a ca ll
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

Avaya examen   7004.1 examen   7004.1 examen

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Code d'Examen: 3301
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Centre Maintenance & Troubleshooting Exam )
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

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NO.1 In the Avaya Aura Contract Center (AACC) SIP environment, when a call is presented to an agent ¯ s
telephone, the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD) also alerts the agent to the incoming call. The call may
be answered either via the telephone or AAAD.
If the agent uses the AAAD to answer the call, which protocol is used between AACC and the switch to
signal off-hook?
A. CCT
B. SIP RTP
C. TAPI
D. TR87
Answer: A

Avaya   3301   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.2 An agent is configured to handle e-mail multimedia contacts. The agent is able to receive, read, and
reply to e-mails using the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD). However, the agent cannot open
attachments in inbound e-mails.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The agent ¯ s w eb b r o w se r i s no t se t f o r t he co rr ec t cha r ac t e r encod i ng .
B. .NET 3.5 Service Pack 1 is not installed on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
C. Internet Explorer is not set as the default browser on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
D. The agent has not been granted ° open -mail Attachments ± ri gh t s i n C on tr ac t C en t e r m u lti m ed i a
(CCMM).
Answer: A

Avaya   3301   3301 examen

NO.3 In Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC), how do you create auto responses that address the most
commonly received e-mail queries?
A. Run ,1 "Contacts is Closed by Auto Suggestion, top 5" historical report from the "Multimedia" folder in
Historical Reporting on the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) server, and auto suggestion
keywords and responses from the report to create new e-mail auto-respect.
B. Enable "Keyword Reporting" for e-mail contactsinthe "E mail" tool in Contact Center Multimedia
(CCMM) Administration, then use the "Keyword Frequency" tool to determine which keywords would be
used to trigger new auto-responses.
C. Run a "Contact Summary" report in Historical Reporting on the CCMA server and create
auto-responses based on the most frequently-occurring e-mail contact topics in the report.
D. Use the "Auto-Suggest Promotion" tool in CCMM Administration to promote auto-suggestions
auto-responses based on the percentage of contacts for which each auto-suggestion was selected.
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.4 At an elevated level, engineers have designed the architecture ol SH' around ttv<> varlel les of
component s.
Which SIP component is comprised of two subcomponents, where one component initiates SIP the other
component responds to requests?
A. User Agent
B. SIP Gateway Manager
C. Back to-Back User Ag
D. SIP Server
E. SIP Gateway
Answer: B

Avaya   3301   certification 3301   3301

NO.5 Your department has installed a backup utility client application on your co-resident Contact Center
Manager Server (CCMS) server. This utility uses port 10000 for network communications. After installing
the utility and rebooting the server, you begin to have issued with the Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC)
system.
What are the symptoms of this problem that you experience?
A. The TFE service fails to start and calls are not processed.
B. The Toolkit Name service fails to start and agents appear as "UNKNOWN" in real-time displays.
C. The NCCT service fails to start and agents are unable to log in via the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop)
(AAAD).
D. SymposiumWC.exe fails to start and supervisors are unable to log in to Contact Center Manager
Administrator (CCMA).
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 3301   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.6 The C:\WINDOWS\system32\drivers\etc\hosts file on the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
contains multiple entries for each host. You have removed the duplicate entries by manually editing the
file.
What should you do next to completely resolve the issue?
A. Run the Server Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS server.
B. Reboot the CCMS server.
C. Use the windows services utility to restart the MAS Configuration manager services.
D. Run the CCMS network Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS
server.
Answer: B

Avaya   3301 examen   certification 3301   certification 3301   certification 3301

NO.7 Avaya Aura Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) is host to the Contact Center Security framework
certificate Store. In the procedures to Create a Certificate Store, once the store is created is also created.
A characteristic of this certificate is that it contains__________.
A. a private key that is used in private - public key encryption
B. a public key that is used in public - public key encryption
C. a private key that is used in private - private key encryption
D. a public key that is used in private - private key encryption
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 3301   certification 3301

NO.8 While Investigating an Issue with an Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) Contact Center Manager
(CCMS), you discover that the Task Flow Executor (TFE) frequently restarts. In an effort to discover the
cause of the restarts, you decide to review the TFE log file.
Which file contains the most recent TFE logs.?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\TFE 1.log
B. D:\Avaya\l_ogs\CCMS_TFF 1.log
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS_TFE_5.log
D. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_TFE_1.log
Answer: C

certification Avaya   3301   3301   certification 3301

NO.9 Where are current SIP messages logged by Contact Center Manager Server?
A. C:\Avaya\logs\CCMS\SipMessages0
B. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessages0
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_SGM_SipMessages0
D. F:\Traces\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessagesO
Answer: D

Avaya   3301   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.10 Which SIP component supports both H.323 and SIP protocol architecture, and which common media
streaming protocol is supported?
A. SIP Gateway Manager with transport Layer Security (TLS)
B. Network Routing Service with TCP and UDP
C. Back to Back User Agent (B2BUA) with TLS
D. SIP Gateway with Real-Time Protocol (RTP)
E. SIP Redirect Server with RTP
Answer: C

Avaya   3301   certification 3301

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