IT examen les plus récentes et les plus efficaces des questions et réponses: 一月 2014

2014年1月31日星期五

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Code d'Examen: 00M-503
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Power Systems with IBM i Technical Sales Professional - v2 (00M-503))
Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following provides the most capacity and satisfies the disk and write cache
protection
rules for IBM i 7.1 when running on a POWER Blade in a BladeCenter S?
A. Mirror the disks using IBM
B. Mirror the disks using VIOS *
C. RAID-5 with two BladeCenter S SAS RAID Controller Modules
D. RAID-5 with a single BladeCenter S SAS RAID Controller Module
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is running a mission critical application on an older POWER6 520 system. They
want
to upgrade to the Power 720 server but leave the application and data on the existing disks. What
is required to meet the customer needs?
A. HSL-2 I/O drawer
B. FC #5796 I/O drawer
C. FC #5877 I/O drawer
D. Olddisks moved to the new server
Answer: D

IBM   00M-503   00M-503   00M-503

NO.3 Which IBM SAN is supported on BladeCenter S for IBM i, Linux and AIX ?
A. XIV
B. DS3200
C. DS3400
D. DS4800
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is planning to consolidate server workloads to multiple partitions running on an
8-core
Power 720 system. They also need to support virtual storage for Windows workload running in a
BladeCenter and AIX and Linux partitions. Which of the following supports virtual storage for
Windows servers?
A. IBM i
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. PowerVM Express Edition
D. VMControl Entry Edition
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a difference between the Power 720/740 Host Ethernet Adapter
(HEA)
and the Power 520 Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE) adapter?
A. Supports 1Gbps speeds
B. Available as a MES
C. Support for RJ-45 ports
D. Supports port virtualization
Answer: D

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NO.6 How does the N-2 rule apply when upgrading to IBM i 7.1?
A. A compatibility PTF is required when upgrading from 5.3
B. Two full system saves must be done before upgrading to 7.1.
C. i 5.4 is the oldest version that can upgrade directly to 7.1.
D. MES hardware upgrade must be installed before upgrading to 7.1.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is running on a 2-core POWER6 520 server and IBM i 6.1. The server hardware
needs
to be upgraded for performance and additional memory capacity. Upgrading to which Power
Systems server will enable this customer to keep the serial number from the 520?
A. Power 740 4-core
B. Power 720 4-core
C. Power 730 8-core
D. Power 720 6-core
Answer: D

IBM   00M-503 examen   00M-503   00M-503   00M-503

NO.8 What is a capability of the IBM Workload Estimator?
A. It can plan for VIOS for IBM i.
B. It converts system plans generated by HMC.
C. It can validate plans for initial ordering.
D. It provides input to the System Planning Tool.
Answer: D

IBM examen   00M-503   00M-503

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Code d'Examen: C2160-667
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Architectural Design of SOA Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 A Fortune 100 company is migrating its Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
architecture to SOA.
The intent is to begin exposing its capabilities to business partners. The CIO is thinking about
building a
high speed, custom messaging solution so there is capacity for future growth.
What should the SOA Designer say about the long-term implications of that direction?
A. A custom messaging solution could provide performance advantages if development
priority is
allocated to provide standards-based connectors and adapters for business partners to
connect.
B. XML messages can be transformed at wire speed using Enterprise Service Bus (ESB)
appliances like
WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliance, so it is not necessary to be concerned with that part
of the
system's performance.
C. Total cost of ownership will increase with custom middleware. Open standards-based
commercial
messaging products are more interoperable, extensible, scalable, replaceable, and reliable
than
custom-built systems.
D. It will take a serious commitment to detailed technical support to make this happen. It is
always a
tradeoff between standards-based compliance and performance. The implementation of the
custom
messaging will need to provide serious performance advantages to business partners.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Why is it necessary to enforce policies and monitor services within SOA Services
Management?
A. To insure data integrity and correlate business processes
B. To trace transactions and diagnose problems
C. To collect key performance metrics
D. To ensure service availability
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2160-667   C2160-667   certification C2160-667

NO.3 A midsize city is experiencing rapid growth that requires extensive changes in city
land use regulations.
Under this pressure, many land use disputes are getting caught in endless inter-departmental
exchanges
to complete data collection using a variety of completion criteria. This is angering both
citizens and land
developers.
Which approach to SOA is likely to have the greatest impact?
A. Apply governance policies and procedures to control inter-departmental exchanges.
B. Align the departments with a common end-to-end process with shared business services.
C. Align the departments with a common data model and data access services to avoid
confusion and
duplication.
D. Create citizens portals to provide a mechanism for citizens to more easily monitor and
manage their
role in the process.
Answer: B

IBM   certification C2160-667   certification C2160-667   C2160-667

NO.4 A company has an existing message-based middleware solution that allows
exchanging business
information among several applications using a topic-based publish-subscribe integration
pattern. As part
of its SOA strategy, the company is now embarking on service-enabling the applications and
wants to
employ the publish-subscribe pattern using Web services technology.
Which Web services specification best addresses this need?
A. WS-Federation
B. WS-Addressing
C. WS-Notification
D. WS-MetaDataExchange
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can a designer most effectively integrate components developed in various
technologies at
different companies into a composite application within an SOA?
A. Through careful coordination to ensure compatible interfaces
B. Through the use of industry standards such as SOAP over HTTPS
C. By placing the components in a service repository which will mediate the differences in
their interfaces
D. By providing code mediation and transformation functions through a business process
modeling effort
Answer: B

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NO.6 A team is evaluating the maturity of a customer's solution architecture relative to the
IBM SOA
Foundation. It is discovered that the customer has invested heavily in an internally-developed
Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) and that their ESB has functionality expected to be found in other SOA
Foundation
services, especially Process Services, Business Services, and Information Services.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Continue development of the ESB because the architecture is generally compliant with the
SOA
Foundation.
B. Stop development of the ESB because the architecture violates the principle of loose
coupling among
services.
C. Continue using the ESB but begin a transition to a vendor-supported, standards-compliant
ESB.
D. Modify development priorities to shift Process Services functionality to other parts of the
Solution
Architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company wants to integrate a number of existing best-of-breed applications by
implementing service
facades and an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB). The initial scenario involves the transfer of
order
information between a number of these backend services depending on business rules.
An SOA Designer is asked to capture the functional requirements.
What is the most appropriate starting point.?
A. Analysis of the information requirements of the existing applications
B. Investigation into appropriate industry standards for transferring data
C. Creation of use cases to understand what the services may be and how they interact
D. Define the component model associated with the existing applications and specify the
service
interfaces
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification C2160-667   C2160-667 examen   C2160-667

NO.8 The IBM SOA Foundation includes services that support business innovation and
optimization.
What should be found in an SOA solution compliant with the SOA Foundation?
A. Automatic recognition of marketplace trends and dynamic reconfiguration of services in
support
B. Business process simulation to predict the effect that process changes might have on the
business
C. Alerts generated whenever business efficiency drops below a predefined threshold
D. An SOA dashboard for executives showing new business opportunities categorized by
Return on
Investment (ROI)
Answer: B

IBM examen   C2160-667   C2160-667   C2160-667

NO.9 A mortgage loan provider currently has legacy applications utilized by a network of
branches and
franchised agents. They want to expand by adding a new channel to allow independent
mortgage brokers
to submit mortgage loan applications. They realize they must provide a differentiating offering
to the
independent mortgage brokers to attract participants and grow the new channel.
How can SOA benefit their requirement?
A. By building an SOA with a secure connectivity layer, they could quickly enable the
mortgage broker
channel to use their applications without any changes to the legacy system.
B. They could reduce the cost to develop new applications needed for each independent
broker by
reusing services as integration code that is written for each broker's system to expedite
development.
C. By service enabling the legacy applications and offering a Web-based portal for
independent brokers,
they can minimize the impact to existing channels, minimize changes to existing code, and
quickly create
an offering for the new channel.
D. By implementing security and governance as part of an SOA deployment, they can control
access to
the current system to determine which brokers are using the system and personalize their
marketing to
the high usage brokers.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The SOA reference architecture identifies core services including Interaction, Process,
Information,
Partner, Access, and Infrastructure.
What is one valid reason for excluding one or more of these services in an SOA?
A. The application is predominantly middleware in nature, eliminating the need for
presentation services.
B. The consumer and the provider belong to different companies.
C. The business sponsor has set budget constraints on solution architecture and the
architectural
components to be included have to be prioritized.
D. The customer's internal politics make the specification too difficult.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A government agency wants to ensure the selected patterns and code standards set
down by their SOA
governance body are adhered to.
Which type of tool will support this?
A. Code generation
B. Parsing
C. UML modeling
D. Data modeling
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2160-667   C2160-667   certification C2160-667   certification C2160-667

NO.12 What is the next step while architecting an SOA solution after documenting the
business processes?
A. Determine the operations required to realize each process.
B. Select a business steward for each process and instruct the steward to identify re-usable
services.
C. Identify the services needed to realize each business process and group them into logical
components.
D. Identify core and non-core business components.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A retail catalog companys printing and mailing expenses are growing much more
rapidly than revenue.
Each time they update their database, they ship more catalogs and customers call in with
more
corrections.
Which evaluation and recommendation should the SOA Designer make?
A. Data quality is low. Master data management should be installed to cleanse and maintain
data quality
both from data sources and updates from the call center.
B. Third party mail lists are inconsistent. Use process modeling to identify when multiple
records are
created and how multiple catalogs get printed. Then use process simulation to optimize new
processes.
C. Processes do not incorporate data cleansing. Create an information service that retrieves
similar
records and displays them in a portlet, so operators can see multiple records and work with
the customer
to eliminate them.
D. Data entry is a very common source of error and customers are often inconsistent as well.
Operator
generated updates should be re-implemented to the indirect exposure solution pattern to
separate data
entry from record update permitting a data cleansing step in the update processes.
Answer: A

certification IBM   certification C2160-667   C2160-667

NO.14 A large airline has decided to use SOA as a means to reduce costs through the use of
an Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) based infrastructure. The IT strategy group has purchased sophisticated
messaging
middleware and prototyped some services related to accessing passenger information. The
airline needs
to decide what to do next.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Move the prototype to production to assess the impact on the enterprise architecture.
B. Identify a governance method to define policies and procedures for sharing the ESB
infrastructure.
C. Align an SOA project with a business initiative and select high-value services through
process analysis.
D. Add a process server to the infrastructure to provide a means to use the passenger
information
services.
Answer: C

certification IBM   C2160-667   C2160-667

NO.15 An engineering services company is being asked by its customers to provide solutions
that cross Line
of Business (LOB) areas. Each LOB is independent and is measured on its own profitability.
The Chief
Operating Officer plans to make some organizational changes.
How could SOA enable this business transformation?
A. Provide an abstraction layer for each LOB application that will allow flexible composition of
services
tailored to each LOB business model. Create an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) that supports
integration of
systems across the LOBs for reuse.
B. Provide shared business services by migrating to a commercial Enterprise Resource
Planning (ERP)
system that can be service-enabled for access through an enterprise portal or from existing
individual
LOB applications.
C. Implement information as a service to consolidate data models and sharing across LOBs.
Support
governance of the service portfolio at an enterprise level.
D. Create an architecture board for each LOB to introduce SOA processes and drive service
identification,
goal modeling and business process re-engineering in support of mapping services to
business
capabilities.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2090-735
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9.5 SQL Procedure Developer)
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement should be used to declare an array with at most 10 elements of type
INTEGER?
A. DECLARE sub_total INTEGER[10];
B. DECLARE sub_total[10] INTEGER;
C. CREATE TYPE sub_total AS INTEGER[10];
D. CREATE TYPE sub_total[10] AS INTEGER;
Answer: C

IBM   C2090-735   C2090-735   C2090-735   C2090-735 examen

NO.2 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing
a DECLARE
GLOBALTEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement can be used to define an array of 30 names that have a maximum
size of 25
characters each?
A. CREATE TYPE names AS VARCHAR(25) ARRAY[30];
B. CREATE ARRAY names[30] VARCHAR(25);
C. CREATE TYPE names[30] VARCHAR(25);
D. CREATE ARRAY names AS VARCHAR(25);
Answer: A

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NO.4 Given the statement shown below:SELECT ROW CHANGE TOKEN FOR dept,
RID_BIT (dept) FROM
dept WHERE deptno = 'A00' WITH URWhich two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The statement is selecting two columns from DEPT table.
B. The statement will allow the latest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
C. The statement will allow the earliest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
D. The statement will return a TIMESTAMP value.
E. The statement uses optimistic locking.
Answer: BE

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NO.5 What will be the initial value of V_MAX in the declaration statement shown
below?DECLARE v_max
DECIMAL(9,2);
A. 0.0
B. 2
C. 9
D. NULL
Answer: D

IBM examen   C2090-735   C2090-735

NO.6 hich steps must be followed to return a result set from an SQL procedure?
A. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Close the cursor.
5.Return to the application.
B. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the WITH RETURN clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
C. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
D. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4. Close the cursor.
Answer: B

IBM   C2090-735 examen   C2090-735

NO.7 Given the statements shown below: DECLARE c_dept CURSOR WITH HOLD FOR
SELECT * FROM
dept; OPEN c_dept;Which two conditions are true? (Choose two.)
A. C_DEPT will remain open after a ROLLBACK.
B. C_DEPT will remain open after a COMMIT.
C. C_DEPT will be returned to the caller of the routine.
D. C_DEPT will be positioned before the next logical row.
E. All locks held by C_DEPT will be released after a COMMIT.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Given the SQL statement shown below:DECLARE test CURSOR FOR SELECT
hiredate FROM
employee FOR UPDATE; Which statement correctly describes the cursor that is created?
A. The cursor will be considered a read-only cursor.
B. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned updates.
C. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned deletes.
D. The cursor can be used to perform positioned updates and deletes.
Answer: D

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NO.9 hich statement can be used to declare a variable inside an SQL procedure that can be
used to
represent a monetary value?
A. DECLARE v_money MONEY;
B. DECLARE v_money DOUBLE;
C. DECLARE v_money DECIMAL(9,2);
D. DECLARE v_money CURRENCY;
Answer: C

IBM   C2090-735   C2090-735   certification C2090-735   C2090-735 examen
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NO.10 What are two valid DECLARE statements in an SQL procedure? (Choose two.)
A. DECLARE var1 INTEGER;
B. DECLARE var1 DECIMAL [9];
C. DECLARE var1 XML;
D. DECLARE var1 CURRENT DATE;
E. DECLARE var1[10] INTEGER;
Answer: AC

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Code d'Examen: C2090-914
Nom d'Examen: IBM (System Administration for Red Brick Decision Server Version 6)
Questions et réponses: 153 Q&As

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NO.1 To specify that the input file is to be read from standard-in, the following INPUTFILE
clause
should be used
A.INPUTFILE ' '
B.INPUTFILE '<'
C.INPUTFILE 'STDIN'
D.INPUTFILE '-'
Correct:D

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.2 For a dimension table to participate in a STAR index, the table must be created with
the ____
specification.
A.CONSTRAINT
B.MAX ROWS PER SEGMENT
C.DATA IN
D.DEFAULT
Correct:B

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.3 Red Brick Decision Server is implemented on Windows NT by a ___________ that runs
as a
___________.
A.single multithreaded process, Windows NT service
B.Windows NT service, single multithreaded process
C.NTFS file system, Windows NT service
D.none of the above
Correct:A

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.4 What operation is not performed as part of single pass loading by the Red Brick TMU?
A.Datatype Conversion
B.Referential Integrity Checking
C.Index building
D.Table Reorganization
Correct:D

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.5 The purpose of the fill factor is:
A.To tell a node when to split
B.To reserve extra space in each node
C.To specify when a node is 100% full
D.None of the above
Correct:B

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.6 The _____________ collects statistics for the dynamic statistic tables (DSTs) and
performs the
actions specified by ALTER SYSTEM commands.
A.listener thread (rbwlsnr)
B.process checker thread (rbwpchk)
C.administration Daemon Process (rbwadmd)
D.Red Brick API thread (rbwapid)
Correct:C

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.7 Target indexes and multi-column B-Tree on the foreign key columns of a fact table
support:
A.Natural join
B.TARGETJoin
C.Star index
D.Clustered index
Correct:B

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.8 A logical model contains which of the following attributes:
A.technology dependent
B.includes data types and other technology components
C.a picture representation of business rules and relationships
D.contains an indexing strategy
E.a and b
F.b and c
Correct:C

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.9 In cases where data is known to be skewed, the recommended target index domain
should be:
A.small
B.normal
C.large
D.hybrid
Correct:D

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.10 Any table that is referenced by another table must have a:
A.TARGETindex
B.STARindex
C.Foreign key
D.Primary key
Correct:D

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.11 Fact tables in a data warehouse generally contain:
A.aggregate data
B.descriptive text
C.detail data
D.both a and b
E.both a and c
Correct:E

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.12 Which of the following is NOT a valid Table Management Utility format?
A.FORMAT UNLOAD
B.FORMAT IBM SEPARATED BY
C.FORMAT AGGREGATED
D.FORMAT IBM VARIABLE
E.FIXED
Correct:C

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.13 An ideal DSS STAR schema is said to be ___________ whereas a typical OLTP
schema is said to
be highly _______________.
A.Normalized/denormalized
B.Factual/Dimensional
C.Denormalized/normalized
D.Currrent/historical
Correct:C

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.14 Decision-Support systems have (among others) the following characteristics
A.Relational integrity
B.Join paths based on business relations
C.No redundancy
D.Both A and B
E.A, B and C
Correct:D

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.15 Which of the following describes a conformed dimension:
A.Dimensions that have built-in hierarchies
B.A dimension table that can be shared by one or more fact tables
C.A set of attributes that change over time
D.All of the above
Correct:B

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.16 The 'default' Red Brick Decision Server index is a:
A.Star Index
B.Target Index
C.B-Tree Index
D.Deferred Index
Correct:C

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.17 The fillfactor should always be set to 100% in cases of:
A.Data spaces
B.Star indexes
C.TMU_REORG TEMPSPACE
D.Small domain target indexes
Correct:D

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.18 The size of the memory work area for building indexes is set by which parameter?
A.INDEX TEMPSPACE
B.INDEX TEMPSPACE THRESHOLD
C.INDEX MAXSPILLSPACE
D.INDEX DIRECTORY MAXSIZE
Correct:B

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.19 Which of the following definitions describe the STAR index?
A.A sorted list of concatenated row IDs from the dimension tables named in the index key
B.A bitmap index based on fact table rows
C.An index built over multiple fact table columns
D.A multi-table join index based on fact table foreign key values
E.a and b
F.a, b, c, and d
G.a, c, and d
H.c and d
Correct:G

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

NO.20 Views are useful for a wide variety of purposes, including:
A.Decreasing security
B.Simplifying query constraints
C.Making administrative changes, such as database schema design changes, visible to the
users
D.None of the above
Correct:B

IBM   C2090-914   C2090-914   C2090-914

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Code d'Examen: C2090-913
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Informix 4GL Development)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Which are valid clauses of an INPUT statement?
A. ON KEY
B. ON ANY KEY
C. ON LAST KEY
D. ON INPUT WRAP
E. BEFORE/AFTER KEY
F. BEFORE/AFTER INPUT
G. BEFORE/AFTER FIELD
H. BEFORE/AFTER INTERRUPT
Answer: AFG

IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.2 Which statement is correct about the BEFORE MENU clause of the MENU statement?
A. It will execute before the menu appears to the user on the screen.
B. It is required to check user access privileges before displaying the menu.
C. It is the only place that the HIDE OPTION and SHOW OPTION statements can be used.
D. It is required before variables can be used for the menu-name, option name, and option-description.
Answer: A

IBM   C2090-913   certification C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913

NO.3 Which clauses must be included in an INPUT statement?
A. TO
B. FROM
C. INPUT
D. ATTRIBUTE
E. screen_variable
F. program_variable
Answer: CF

IBM   certification C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913

NO.4 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the exhibit, which rows will the DELETE statement delete?
A. all of the rows
B. all rows except those rows with a stock_num equal to five
C. only those rows with descriptions of baseball and football
D. only those rows with descriptions of baseball gloves and baseball hat
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification C2090-913   certification C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.5 Which values will the form display when using the INPUT ARRAY statement?
A. null
B. the values of the program array
C. the default attributes of the form
D. the default attributes of the form or null
E. the default column values from the table definition or null
F. the default attributes of the form or the default column values from the table definition
G. the default attributes of the form, the default column values from the table definition, or null
Answer: G

IBM   certification C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913

NO.6 Which sequence of steps opens a form and displays it on the screen?
A. an OPEN WINDOW WITH FORM statement
B. an OPEN FORM statement, followed by a FORM statement
C. an OPEN WINDOW statement, followed by an OPEN FORM statement
D. an OPEN FORM statement, followed by a DISPLAY FORM statement
Answer: AD

certification IBM   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.7 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the code segment in the exhibit, which function(s) would be called?
A. function_a()
B. function_a() and function _b()
C. function_a(), function_b() and function_c()
D. function_a() and a run-time error would occur
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement about INFORMIX-4GL is true?
A. The INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version requires a p-code runner to execute.
B. INFORMIX-4GL for Windows is only offered in the RDS version of the product.
C. The INFORMIX-4GL RDS version compiles faster than the INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version.
D. The INFORMIX-4GL RDS version executes faster than the INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version.
Answer: C

certification IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913 examen

NO.9 Which statements can be used in an INPUT statement control block?
A. showhelp(23)
B. NEXT ROW PRIOR
C. NEXT FIELD NEXT
D. CALL showhelp(23)
E. NEXT FIELD PREVIOUS
F. PROMPT "text" FOR CHAR variable
Answer: CDE

IBM   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913

NO.10 Which statements will be interrupted if the DEFER INTERRUPT statement has been executed and the
user presses the interrupt key?
A. INPUT
B. CONSTRUCT
C. INPUT ARRAY
D. OPEN CURSOR
E. START REPORT
Answer: ABC

certification IBM   C2090-913   certification C2090-913   certification C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913

NO.11 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the segment of code in the exhibit, what is the appropriate text for the variable
what_error_message?
A. The serial number you entered is not valid.
B. Duplicate equipment records are not allowed.
C. Equipment was not found, please re-enter the serial number.
D. Null values are not allowed in name, serial number, make, or model fields.
Answer: B

IBM   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.12 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the exhibit, what is the stock_curs cursor being used to do?
A. supply an "index of primary keys" to the stock_all_curs
B. lock the current row of data in the database table to prevent the data from becoming stale
C. check if any new rows have been inserted into the table since the stock_all_curs was last opened
D. fetch the complete row of data from the database for the primary key supplied by the stock_all_curs
Answer: A

IBM   C2090-913 examen   certification C2090-913

NO.13 Which type of errors can be trapped by SQLCA.SQLCODE?
A. compile-time errors
B. user-interface errors
C. application logic errors
D. run-time database errors
Answer: D

certification IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.14 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the form in the exhibit, which code segment would properly add 10 to the input contents of field a
and display the results in field b?
A. AFTER FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
B. BEFORE INPUT
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
C. AFTER FIELD a
NEXT FIELD b
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
D. ON KEY (F3)
NEXT FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
Answer: A

IBM   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.15 Which are valid INFORMIX-4GL function types?
A. MAIN
B. DEFINE
C. REPORT
D. INCLUDE
E. OPTIONS
F. GLOBALS
G. FUNCTION
Answer: ACFG

certification IBM   certification C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913

NO.16 An end user wants to see how values x and y are being set in function1 and function2, and also needs
to know the value of z before function3 is called.
Using the Informix 4GL Debugger, which sequence of steps accomplishes this?
A. set a break point for line 6, execute a call function2, execute a step/step
B. set a break point for line 5, execute a call function1, execute a call function2, execute print z on line 10
C. set a break point for line 5, execute a step into on lines 5 and 6; execute print z on line 9 prior to
executing a step/step into/continue
D. set a break point for line 5, execute a step, print x, execute a step, print y, execute print z on line 9 prior
to executing a step/step into/continue
Answer: C

certification IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.17 Which statement transfers fields on a form to program variables?
A. LET
B. INPUT
C. DISPLAY
D. INITIALIZE
Answer: B

IBM   certification C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.18 What is one advantage of using INFORMIX-4GL C-compiled version versus INFORMIX-4GL RDS?
A. It compiles faster.
B. It executes the program faster.
C. It uses the INFORMIX-4GL Interactive Debugger.
D. It readily accesses a graphical presentation of your application.
Answer: B

IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.19 What does the INPUT statement do?
A. It defines variables used in a form.
B. It moves a user through the fields in a form.
C. It automatically opens the form and displays it.
D. It assigns a field in a form to a program variable.
Answer: BD

IBM   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913

NO.20 The end users at your client site require the ability to enter purchase orders online. Management has
agreed to allow the users to perform this function, but with some restrictions. End users will be classified
as one of three categories:
Each category of employee will have the following limits on the amount of the purchase order they are
allowed to enter:
Given the following table structures and relationship:
Which two functions must be created to determine the maximum purchase order amount that a user is
authorized to enter? (Choose two.)
A. function to obtain the login of the user
B. function to obtain the usertype_amt for the user
C. function to obtain the login ID and group of the user
D. function to obtain the personal profile set-up by the user
Answer: AB

IBM   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.21 Which qualifiers can be used when formatting report output?
A. USING
B. SPACES
C. STRING
D. NEWLINE
E. PICTURE
F. CLIPPED
Answer: ABF

IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.22 What is the effect of the WITHOUT DEFAULTS clause of an INPUT statement?
A. It initializes the program variables to NULL.
B. It prevents user input of DEFAULT values in the form.
C. It prevents the program variables from being initialized to NULL.
D. It initializes the program variables to their table-defined defaults.
Answer: C

IBM   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913

NO.23 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the form in the exhibit, which code segment would properly add 10 days to the input contents of
field a and display the results in field b?
A. AFTER FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
B. BEFORE INPUT
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
DISPLAY BY NAME r_record.b
C. AFTER FIELD a
NEXT FIELD b
LET r_record.b = r_record.a +10
D. ON KEY (F3)
NEXT FIELD a
LET r_record.b = r_record.a + 10
Answer: A

certification IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913 examen

NO.24 Which cursor type can use the FETCH PREVIOUS syntax?
A. scroll cursor
B. update cursor
C. non-scrolling cursor
D. a mobile cursor available only in D4GL
Answer: A

IBM   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.25 Click the <<ItemExhibitName>> button to view the exhibit.
Given the code in the exhibit, what would be displayed in the field lastname if the user were to enter
"Jones" and press F3 in the lastname field? (Assume lastname is 20 characters long.)
A. null
B. Smith
C. Jones
D. blank
Answer: B

certification IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.26 What are characteristics of INFORMIX-4GL RDS?
A. It provides a graphical user interface.
B. It can use the INFORMIX-4GL Interactive Debugger.
C. It compiles faster than INFORMIX-4GL Compiled Version.
D. It executes faster than INFORMIX-4GL Compiled Version.
Answer: BC

IBM examen   C2090-913   certification C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.27 Given the following directory structure, where would you find two existing libraries for the application?
(Choose two.)
A. Bin
B. Lib
C. Util
D. 4GL_lib
Answer: BD

IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen

NO.28 Which statement uses correct syntax for the INPUT statement?
A. INPUT program_variable FROM screen_variable
B. INPUT FROM program_variable TO screen_variable
C. INPUT TO program_variable FROM screen_variable
D. INPUT ATTRIBUTE BY NAME TO program_variable FROM screen_variable
Answer: A

IBM   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913 examen

NO.29 Why will preparing UPDATE and DELETE statements increase their execution speed?
A. UPDATE and DELETE statements can NOT be prepared.
B. The rows of the tables being selected will be cached in memory if the statement is prepared.
C. Prepared statements are checked for syntax and optimized at prepare time, not at execution time.
D. Memory is allocated for the results set which will be returned from the SELECT statement at prepare
time.
Answer: C

IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913   certification C2090-913

NO.30 Which INPUT statements are syntactically correct?
A. INPUT r_record.* BY NAME
B. INPUT BY NAME r_record.*
C. INPUT r_record.* FROM s_input.*
D. INPUT FROM s_input.* TO r_record.*
E. INPUT TO s_input.* FROM r_record.*
F. INPUT BY NAME r_record.* FROM s_input.*
Answer: BC

certification IBM   C2090-913   C2090-913   C2090-913 examen   C2090-913

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Code d'Examen: C2160-669
Nom d'Examen: IBM (SOA Fundamentals (2008))
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a typical requirement in an SOA environment for determining business
success?
A.Adherence to six-sigma business guidelines
B.A dashboard for reporting metrics to business analysts
C.The ability to pilot the solution in a production environment to business stakeholders
D.The capability to monitor and measure performance against business process goals
Answer:D

IBM   certification C2160-669   C2160-669   C2160-669   C2160-669

NO.2 Which need drives a project to use an SOA approach?
A.Business flexibility
B.Resource virtualization
C.Application integration
D.Improved systems management
Answer:A

IBM   certification C2160-669   C2160-669 examen

NO.3 What is a role of Web services in building an SOA?
A.To provide interoperability using XML-based messages
B.To provide an interface for human interaction using task lists
C.To provide loose coupling via remote method invocations using JAX-RPC
D.To implement the service functionality through interfaces defined in the applications' BPEL
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which SOA architectural concept is applied as an organization combines services to
perform a
business process?
A.Modularity
B.Composition
C.Encapsulation
D.Separation of concerns
Answer:B

IBM examen   certification C2160-669   certification C2160-669

NO.5 How can disparate services communicate with each other in an SOA?
A.Use XML messages to provide interoperability.
B.Service providers adopt one common data model for all services.
C.Enforce a common data model at the Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) layer.
D.Business analysts create the integration logic details to negotiate between services.
Answer:A

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NO.6 How are the capabilities of a Web 2.0 application enhanced by SOA?
A.Two or more SOA services may be connected together to create a new business process,
such as in
the case of a mashup.
B.Business users can visually assemble mashups by blending publicly available information
and services
with a company's internal information and services.
C.Syndication of site content is enabled through the use of SOA, since it involves
standardized protocols,
which permit end-users to make use of a site's data in another context.
D.The community that uses the SOA services can employ community mechanisms on the
application,
such as ratings and comments, to provide feedback so the application can be improved on
the next
iteration.
Answer:B

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NO.7 In the context of SOA and Business Process Management (BPM), what demonstrates
flexibility in a
business process?
A.Tasks can be rearranged without impact to the user.
B.Business rules can be dynamically stopped at runtime.
C.New services can be built at runtime without any special tooling.
D.Business processes can be automated so they do not require feedback.
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which role does WS-Security play in an SOA?
A.It provides security interchange for RESTful Web services.
B.It enforces authentication and authorization within an SOA.
C.It provides an end-to-end security context among Web services.
D.It provides a security implementation for Enterprise Service Buses (ESB).
Answer:C

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NO.9 When is an SOA implementation most appropriate?
A.Real-time performance is critical.
B.An immediate Return on Investment (ROI) is required.
C.The application interfaces require a high degree of customization.
D.Business functionality is required by many parts of the organization.
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which basic characteristics of SOA can contribute to business agility?
A.Reuse and security
B.Loose coupling and reuse
C.Governance and integration
D.Point-to-point integration and extensibility
Answer:B

IBM   certification C2160-669   C2160-669

NO.11 What does the information in the service registry support?
A.The complete service lifecycle
B.Runtime lookup of service endpoints
C.Enhances messages through mediation
D.Transformation of messages between different technologies
Answer:B

IBM   C2160-669 examen   C2160-669   certification C2160-669

NO.12 A retail company is having difficulty implementing changes to its business process.
Lines of business
maintain their own data stores and proprietary access interfaces. There are several manual
steps which
involve recapturing of data. How can they change this process to make it more efficient?
A.Outsource the shipping function to reduce overhead costs.
B.Create services that combine application and information assets.
C.Create shared services to eliminate redundancies in the process.
D.Choose the latest technology available to integrate the applications and resources.
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which initiative helps achieve business agility in SOA?
A.Pairing up the appropriate service consumers and providers.
B.Buying prefabricated objects to quickly implement business functions.
C.Choreographing a business process to efficiently implement the desired business
functions.
D.Designing and developing a new business process model rather than adapting an existing
one.
Answer:C

IBM   certification C2160-669   C2160-669   C2160-669

NO.14 Which business driver would cause a company in the healthcare industry to consider
SOA?
A.Government regulations for communication and interoperability between companies
continue to change.
B.The cost of healthcare is increasing extremely fast and SOA will bring the costs back under
control.
C.Since doctors and other medical practitioners do not understand IT, SOA can shield these
roles from
the underlying technology implementation.
D.Medical providers at smaller companies that use .Net can communicate to larger parent
companies that
use Java through Web services interoperability.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which is a driving business need for SOA?
A.Automate and optimize processes
B.Security, governance and infrastructure
C.Governance, infrastructure and connectivity
D.Interoperability, standards and application integration
E.High availability of hardware, operational systems and services
Answer:A

IBM examen   C2160-669   certification C2160-669   C2160-669

NO.16 Which statement describes a business process in the context of SOA?
A.It is a business policy or decision procedure.
B.Items are accumulated and then processed together.
C.It is a series of tasks connected together like building blocks.
D.It enables interactions between message consumers and providers.
Answer:C

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NO.17 A company has implemented a number of business processes using SOA services.
How do they
determine if their new processes are helping the organization to achieve its business
objectives?
A.They establish a Center of Excellence (CoE) to monitor and report on the SOA services
performance.
B.They contact a third party to analyze and evaluate the new processes against the business
objectives.
C.They set and monitor Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to track performance against the
business
objectives.
D.They model the new processes in a business model simulator to identify bottlenecks and
potential
performance issues.
Answer:C

IBM   C2160-669 examen   C2160-669

NO.18 If a component of the overall system is functionally complete and operates within that
system
independently from the functionality of the other components, it is an example of which SOA
architectural
concept?
A.Modularity
B.Extensibility
C.Loose coupling
D.Separation of concerns
E.Composite implementation
Answer:A

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NO.19 Failure to adopt SOA will result in which outcome?
A.Automation of document processing will be difficult.
B.Extremely high volume, synchronous, real-time transactions will occur.
C.Integration costs continue to grow without being offset by new business opportunities.
D.IT budget will increase to cover the cost of additional governance and development
activities.
Answer:C

IBM examen   certification C2160-669   C2160-669   certification C2160-669   certification C2160-669

NO.20 In applying SOA, which principle can reduce overall cost?
A.Reuse services across lines of business.
B.Build services for only the most important business functions.
C.Build general services that can perform a variety of business tasks.
D.Reimplement all services on a consistent hardware and software platform.
Answer:A

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Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen C2140-138, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2140-138
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational RequisitePro)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about cutting and pasting a requirement in a requirements
document?
A. A user cannot cut and paste a requirement in a requirements document.
B. A user can use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to cut and
paste a
requirement in a requirements document.
C. A user should not use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to
cut and paste
a requirement in a requirements document.
D. A user can use either the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu or
the Cut and
Paste commands in the Microsoft Word RequisitePro Requirements menu to cut and paste
requirements
in a requirements document.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where is the password information stored for LDAP-enabled users?
A. the LDAP directory
B. RequisitePro
C. the LDAP Config.ini file
D. the Project.RQL file
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the purpose of renumbering requirements?
A. to allow users to identify a desired numbering scheme
B. to eliminate holes in a numbering scheme where requirements have been deleted
C. to aid in the removal of undesired requirements
D. to allow users to change the numbering scheme
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which RequisitePro system attribute is constant for each requirement?
A. unique ID
B. root value
C. requirement tag
D. location
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2140-138   C2140-138

NO.5 Which two methods can be used to deploy RequisitePro for geographically distributed
teams?(Choose
two.)
A. install RequisitePro on a supported host environment
B. save requirements documents as Word documents to mail them to distributed team
members for
editing
C. use RequisiteWeb for requirements management
D. replicate RequisitePro database at multiple sites
Answer: AC

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IBM meilleur examen C2090-543, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2090-543
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9.7 Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which SQL procedure will retrieve all the rows from table T1 and make those rows
available to the
invoker as a result set?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
SELECT * FROM t1
B. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
BEGIN
DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT * FROM t1;
OPEN c1;
END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
RETURN (SELECT * FROM t1)
D. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
BEGIN
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM t1;
RETURN c1;
END
Answer: B

IBM examen   C2090-543   certification C2090-543

NO.2 For which two database objects can an ALIAS be created? (Choose two.)
A. schema
B. trigger
C. sequence
D. module
Answer: CD

certification IBM   C2090-543   C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.3 User USER1 successfully creates a table USER1.TABLE1 and successfully creates a
package
USER1.PKG1 for an application containing the SQL shown below:
EXEC SQL UPDATE user1.table1 SET col1 = :hvar1 WHERE col1 IS NULL
Assuming user USER2 can connect to the database, but has no other relevant authorities,
which
command must user USER1 issue to permit user USER2 to run the application?
A. GRANT ALTER ON TABLE user1.table1 TO USER user2
B. GRANT EXECUTE ON PACKAGE user1.pkg1 TO USER user2
C. GRANT UPDATE ON TABLE user1.table1 TO USER user2
D. GRANT BIND ON PACKAGE user1.pkg1 TO USER user2
Answer: B

certification IBM   C2090-543   C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.4 An application must insert values into a column that has a TIMESTAMP data type.
What is a valid string representation of a TIMESTAMP?
A. 2009.08.07.12.22.22.0000
B. 2009-08-07 12:22:22.0000
C. 07/08/2009-12:22:22:0000
D. 07-08-2009 12.22.22.0000
Answer: B

IBM   certification C2090-543   C2090-543   C2090-543 examen

NO.5 An existing table has the definition shown below:
CREATE TABLE hr.employees (
empid INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
deptno INTEGER,
authid VARCHAR(255),
salary DECIMAL (10,2),
commission DECIMAL (5,3) DEFAULT 0,
benefits XML )
Only members of the HR_ADMIN group have privilege to SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or
DELETE from
the HR.EMPLOYEES table. A Web-based application is under development that connects to
the
database with a user's AUTHID and enables a user to see their record. No other records are
visible.
Which type of database object can be created by a member of the HR_ADMIN that provides
the
necessary information without changing the privileges on the HR.EMPLOYEES table?
A. trigger
B. view
C. alias
D. index
Answer: B

certification IBM   C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.6 Which condition will prevent a developer from using the DB2 Call Level Interface in an
application?
A. The developer must control the cursor names to comply with company naming standards.
B. An SQL precompiler is not available to the developer.
C. The application must create an external scalar function with the CREATE FUNCTION
statement.
D. The DECLARE CURSOR statement needs to be used.
Answer: D

IBM   C2090-543   C2090-543   C2090-543   C2090-543 examen

NO.7 In a query, which clause can reference a CLOB data type?
A. an ORDER BY clause
B. a GROUP BY clause
C. a WHERE clause
D. a DISTINCT clause
Answer: C

IBM   certification C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.8 Which statement is true of an application that only uses static SQL?
A. The authorization ID of program creator is used to qualify explicitly qualified table
references on a
DROP statement.
B. Static SQL uses SQLDA to determine the number of rows successfully fetched on a
FETCH statement.
C. The authorization ID of application creator is used to qualify implicitly qualified view
references on an
UPDATE statement.
D. The authorization ID of application invoker used by DB2 to perform authorization checking
of an
embedded OPEN statement during execution.
Answer: C

IBM   C2090-543 examen   C2090-543 examen

NO.9 The table shown below contains a large number of financial transactions:
CREATE TABLE webstore.transactions (
transaction_id INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
order_date TIMESTAMP NOT NULL,
shipped_date TIMESTAMP,
customer_id INTEGER NOT NULL,
shipping_info XML NOT NULL,
billing_info XML NOT NULL,
invoice XML NOT NULL )
Only members of the AUDIT_TEAM group have SELECT privilege on the
WEBSTORE.TRANSACTIONS
table. For appropriate supply-chain management, members of the INVENTORY_CONTROL
group need
to see the INVOICE document for each transaction that has a NULL SHIPPED_DATE, but
are restricted
from seeing any shipping or billing information.
Which database object can a member of the AUDIT_TEAM group create to enable the
INVENTORY_CONTROL group to access the information needed from
WEBSTORE.TRANSACTIONS?
A. alias
B. sequence
C. trigger
D. view
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2090-543   certification C2090-543   C2090-543   certification C2090-543

NO.10 The statement below was used to create a cursor named CSR1:
DECLARE csr1 DYNAMIC SCROLL CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee;
After fetching all of the rows in the result set associated with cursor CSR1, which two
statements can be
used to fetch the data starting at the end of the result set? (Choose two.)
A. FETCH LAST
B. FETCH PRIOR
C. FETCH RELATIVE
D. FETCH OFFSET
Answer: BC

IBM examen   C2090-543 examen   C2090-543   C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.11 A database contains a table and a view declared as shown below:
CREATE TABLE s1.t1 ( c1 INTEGER, c2 CHAR(20) );
CREATE VIEW s1.v1 AS SELECT * FROM s1.t1;
A system administrator successfully executes the following code:
GRANT CONNECT, IMPLICIT_SCHEMA ON DATABASE TO user1;
GRANT INSERT ON TABLE s1.t1 TO user1;
GRANT CONTROL ON s1.v1 TO user1;
Which SQL statement does user USER1 have privileges to execute?
A. UPDATE s1.t1 SET c1 = 2 WHERE c1 IS NULL
B. CREATE VIEW user1.v2 AS SELECT * FROM s1.v1
C. CREATE PUBLIC ALIAS a1 FOR s1.v1
D. SELECT * FROM s1.t1 WHERE c2 < 100
Answer: B

IBM   C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.12 Which object can be invoked on a single invocation to return both output parameters
and a result set
back to the invoking application?
A. procedure
B. module
C. table function
D. method
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2090-543   C2090-543   certification C2090-543   C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE store(sid INTEGER, info XML);
INSERT INTO store VALUES (1,
'<storeinfo sid="1">
<name>Grocery A</name>
<items>
<fruit><name>Mango</name><price>1.20</price></fruit>
<fruit><name>Apple</name><price>0.50</price></fruit>
<dessert><name>Ice Cream</name><price>6.00</price></dessert>
</items>
</storeinfo>');
Given the statements shown in the exhibit, a user executes the query shown below:
XQUERY for $store in db2-fn:xmlcolumn('STORE.INFO')/storeinfo
let $items := $store/items/fruit, $count := fn:count($items)
return <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
What is the output?
A. 2
B. <itemcount>2</itemcount>
C. <itemcount>1</itemcount>
D. <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
Answer: D

certification IBM   C2090-543   C2090-543 examen

NO.14 The table shown below exists in the database:
CREATE TABLE team.workitems ( priority INTEGER, last_update TIMESTAMP, details XML
)
User USER1 has CREATEIN authority on the TEAM schema and can SELECT from the
TEAM.WORKITEMS table. An SQL routine is created that performs a positioned update
using a cursor
declared as shown below:
DECLARE c_workitem CURSOR FOR SELECT priority, last_update FROM team.workitems
FOR
UPDATE;
Which additional privilege is required?
A. EXECUTE privilege on TEAM schema
B. ALTER privilege on TEAM.WORKITEMS table
C. BINDADD privilege on TEAM schema
D. UPDATE privilege on TEAM.WORKITEMS table
Answer: D

certification IBM   C2090-543   certification C2090-543

NO.15 You have created a stored procedure (MULTIRESULTS()) on the server which will
return multiple result
sets. While developing a PHP application using the IBM_DB2 extension, you want to call the
stored
procedure. The code shown below will execute the stored procedure:
$stmt = db2_exec($conn, 'CALL multiResults()');
How can you fetch all of the result sets from $stmt?
A. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for the first result set; call db2_next_result($stmt) for more
result sets.
B. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set.
C. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each result set.
D. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set; call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each row
in the result
set.
Answer: A

certification IBM   C2090-543 examen   C2090-543 examen

NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE s1.mytab (
col1 INTEGER GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY,
col2 INTEGER,
col3 INTEGER,
CHECK (col1+col3 < 500)
)
CREATE VARIABLE s1.var1 INTEGER DEFAULT (99)
CREATE FUNCTION s1.add100 (p1 INT, p2 INT)
RETURNS INTEGER
LANGUAGE SQL
DETERMINISTIC
NOT FENCED
BEGIN
SET p1= p2+100;
RETURN p1;
END
Given the table, variable, and function definitions shown in the exhibit, which two statements
contain a
valid invocation of the add100 function? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT col1, outcol=add100(col2,col3) FROM mytab
B. SET var1 = ABS(add100(1,99))
C. SELECT col1, add100(col2,col3) AS outcol FROM mytab
D. SELECT outcol.* FROM TABLE(add100(col2,col3)) AS outcol
Answer: BC

IBM examen   certification C2090-543   C2090-543 examen   C2090-543 examen   certification C2090-543

NO.17 You have set your data types as CHAR(10), VARCHAR(20). Given the operation
shown below:
CHAR(10) UNION VARCHAR(20)
What will be the final data type?
A. CHAR(200)
B. VARCHAR(30)
C. VARCHAR(20)
D. CHAR(30)
Answer: C

IBM examen   C2090-543   certification C2090-543

NO.18 Which object can be created to group together related procedures and user-defined
functions that are
used for tax calculations?
A. collection
B. module
C. routine
D. routine space
Answer: B

IBM   certification C2090-543   certification C2090-543   C2090-543

NO.19 A database contains two tables with the same definition and authorities:
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA
and TEST.SALESDATA. The PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table contains business-critical
information
that is constantly changing; the TEST.SALESDATA table contains a snapshot of the
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table. Business rules require that applications under
development access
the TEST.SALESDATA table until ready for deployment. Once an application is deployed, it
accesses the
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table.
Which object can be used to simplify switching between the TEST.SALESDATA and
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA tables without having to re-code the application?
A. trigger
B. procedure
C. alias
D. sequence
Answer: C

IBM   C2090-543 examen   C2090-543 examen   certification C2090-543

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE FUNCTION deptemployees (idept VARCHAR(3))
RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
firstname VARCHAR(12),
lastname VARCHAR(15))
LANGUAGE SQL
READS SQL DATA
NO EXTERNAL ACTION
DETERMINISTIC
RETURN
SELECT empno, firstnme, lastname
FROM employee
WHERE workdept = deptemployees.idept;
Referring to the exhibit, what contains the proper way to invoke the DEPTEMPLOYEES()
user-defined
function to return all of the employees that work in department D11?
A. SELECT * FROM TABLE(deptemployees('D11'))
B. SELECT * FROM deptemployees('D11')
C. SELECT * FROM deptemployees('D11') AS D11dept
D. SELECT * FROM TABLE(deptemployees('D11')) AS D11dept
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification C2090-543   C2090-543 examen

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