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Code d'Examen: HP0-P16
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Design of HP 9000/HP Integrity Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer performs a network-based backup of HP-UX servers over a Gigabit Ethernet LAN
to save their data to a library. Which technology will improve performance?
A.NIC bonding
B.NIC teaming
C.Auto Port Aggregation (APA)
D.Advanced Technology Attachment
Correct:C

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NO.2 What differentiates HP Integrity servers from other vendors' Itanium-based systems?
A.chipsets
B.full redundancy
C.faster clock speeds
D.memory expandability
Correct:A

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NO.3 When using the HP Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT) to find a corresponding server
for a competitive offer, which numeric fields do you compare?
A.TPC-B
B.number of CPUs
C.delta performance
D.estimated performance
Correct:D

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NO.4 What are advantages of HP partitioning over IBM LPAR partitioning? (Select two.)
A.HP offers two kinds partitions: nPar and vPar.
B.HP vPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
C.HP nPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
D.HP partitions offer the same functionality as IBM LPARS.
E.HP nPars enable dynamic processor reallocation to another nPar.
Correct:A C

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NO.5 What new feature is enabled by the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.PCI-X 1.0
B.SDRAM
C.chip spare
D.PCI Express
Correct:D

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NO.6 HP offers Advanced Memory Protection in the zx2 and sx2000 based servers. Which option
enables this benefit?
A.Double-chip sparing
B.DDR2 memory
C.Scalable Memory Extenders
D.Memory scrubbers
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which feature allows an HP Integrity platform with HP Virtual Server Environment (VSE) to
remain operational if a processor chip fails?
A.iCAP
B.OLAR
C.hot plug processors
D.dynamic processor deallocation
Correct:D

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NO.8 Your customer wants to upgrade their IT environment. What must you do when gathering
information about the customer's existing infrastructure?
A.Identify existing contracts and validate them with the contract administration group.
B.Identify the existing management and administration model and validate the customer's market position.
C.Identify the existing server and storage environment for hardware revision levels and update to the
latest version.
D.Identify the existing server, storage, application, management, administration, contracts, system, and
site diagrams.
Correct:D

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NO.9 By what factor is the I/O bandwidth of the zx2 chipset increased compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.1.0
B.1.2
C.2.0
D.2.5
Correct:C

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NO.10 What are the components of a cell board in an Integrity mid-range server?
A.up to four hard drives
B.up to 64 memory DIMMs
C.up to two PCI I/O card cages
D.up to four multi-core processor chips
Correct:D

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NO.11 How many logical processors are provided in an HP Integrity rx6600 server that has four
dual-core Itanium 2 processors with HyperThreading enabled?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Correct:C

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NO.12 A customer is hesitant to invest in HP Integrity servers because an IBM representative told him
that the Itanium 2 processor will go out of production due to low independent software vendor
(ISV) support. Which responses are correct for this concern? (Select two.)
A.More than 7000 ISVs are developing software for the Itanium 2 processor and the number is growing.
B.HP Integrity Virtual Machine will enable the customer to run any x86 application without performance
loss.
C.The roadmap for HP Integrity servers indicates that future processor developments will be included in
the customer's business plans.
D.Even though there are only 7000 ISVs developing software to run on Itanium 2 processors, they cover
every needed type of application.
Correct:A C

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NO.13 Which new features are available on the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset? (Select
two.)
A.SDRAM
B.chip spare
C.double chip spare
D.up to 512GB main memory
E.up to 768GB main memory
Correct:C E

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NO.14 Your task is to prepare a document that focuses on the competitive positioning of HP Integrity
servers against other vendors for Linux. Which competitive concept should be included in your
document?
A.HP delivers proprietary technology and complete solutions for Linux.
B.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and limited solutions for Linux.
C.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and complete solutions for Linux.
D.HP delivers proprietary technology that results in lower total cost of ownership (TCO).
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which advantages of HP Integrity servers can you propose to a potential customer running IBM
POWER4 servers? (Select two.)
A.IBM supports only Linux operating systems.
B.HP is the only vendor that provides partitioning technology.
C.HP Integrity servers can mix processor types on a cell board.
D.A hardware swap is required to migrate from IBM POWER4 to POWER5.
E.HP Integrity offers a better price-to-performance ratio based on SAP SD benchmark data.
Correct:D E

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NO.16 Considering the advantages of using HP Integrity servers for online transaction processing
(OLTP) environments, what type of business would benefit the most from using this hardware
platform?
A.a data warehouse
B.a bank with automatic teller machines
C.an architectural firm with a large database of digital drawings
D.a library that maintains a catalog of historic records for online viewing
Correct:B

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NO.17 What is an advantage of Itanium-based processors over PA-RISC-based processors?
A.They provide higher reliability and availability.
B.They provide mission-critical application support.
C.They support different operating systems and applications.
D.They provide more than 4GB available memory per application.
Correct:C

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NO.18 When talking to your client about migrating to HP Integrity rx8640 servers, what benefits should
you discuss? (Select two.)
A.HP Integrity partitions can be physical and virtual.
B.Integrity servers use 64-bit processor technology.
C.PA-RISC and Itanium cell boards can be mixed in the same complex.
D.The HP Integrity rx8640 server supports up to eight cell boards in the server.
E.Cell boards with different processor speeds can be mixed in the same partition.
Correct:A B

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NO.19 What is the primary advantage of using roadmaps when discussing HP solutions with your
customers? (Select two.)
A.Roadmaps show information about product reliability.
B.Roadmaps provide information about technical product specifications.
C.Roadmaps show the customer which direction HP is going.
D.Roadmaps create a shared understanding of the future of the business.
Correct:C D

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NO.20 What differentiates the HP Integrity platform from the IBM pSeries?
A.HP Integrity does not run Linux.
B.IBM pSeries does not run Linux.
C.HP Integrity does not run Windows.
D.IBM pSeries does not run Windows.
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S14
Nom d'Examen: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Which HP SIM procedure determines the system management protocol of a detected device and its
operating system?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.2 When is system polling initiated?
A. when a system has generated an error condition
B. when a new system is added to the HP SIM database
C. when the HP SIM central management server (CMS) powers on
D. when HP SIM receives an alert from a managed system to determine system status
Answer: D

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NO.3 When is it necessary to install the WMI Mapper on a Windows-based Central Management Server
(CMS)?
A. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Linux operating system
B. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP-UX operating system
C. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Windows operating system
D. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP OpenVMS operating system
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which protocols are used by HP SIM to identify nodes running Linux? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. SSH
D. HTTP
E. SNMP
F. WBEM
Answer: DEF

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NO.5 Which function of the command mxquery is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. The mxquery command can provide output in XML format.
B. The language of the query results depends on the CMS locale.
C. Users with limited configuration rights privileges can execute mxquery.
D. To run mxquery, you no longer need access to the file system where HP SIM is installed.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When performing a Virtual to Physical migration (V2P), what are some prerequisites for the source
virtual machine? (Select two.)
A. Stop the HP SIM management agents on the virtual machine guest.
B. Insert the SMP Boot CD into the CD-ROM of the virtual machine guest.
C. Verify that the source virtual machine guest is powered off or suspended.
D. Verify that the source virtual machine host is licensed and managed by VMM.
E. Ensure that all network connections on the virtual machine guest have DHCP IP addresses.
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which MX command generated the output shown in the exhibit?
A. mxtool
B. mxuser
C. mxauth
D. mxtoolbox
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which protocols are used in HP SIM to query events from failing devices? (Select two.)
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
C. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: CE

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NO.9 Which HP SIM process determines the associations between a management processor and its server,
a server blade and its enclosure, and an enclosure and its rack?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.10 What happens when HP Storage Essentials integrates with HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SNMP for storage devices is disabled.
B. Data collection from SMI-S devices in HP SIM is disabled.
C. All storage-related events are forwarded to Storage Essentials.
D. Storage devices get marked as managed by Storage Essentials.
E. A new Storage Essentials user is added to the HP SIM user database.
Answer: BD

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NO.11 HP SIM 5.1 features API support to allow dynamic creation of new event types. What does this
support enable you to do?
A. Modify event types without having full configuration rights.
B. Modify event types without manually updating the HP SIM database.
C. Add event types without restarting the HP SIM central management server (CMS).
D. Add event types without manually refreshing any event collections that display in the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You find a 'critical' status in the Virtual Machine Management (VMM) column in HP SIM for the host
server running Microsoft Virtual Server 2005. What does this mean?
A. The virtual machine guest is in a state requiring attention.
B. The virtual machine host is licensed but is not currently communicating with VMM.
C. The VMM agent is installed on the virtual machine host but the host is not licensed.
D. The VMM agent is installed on the server but the server is not a virtual machine host.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What does HP SIM 5.1 require to access management information on an HP ProLiant server running
Microsoft Windows Server 2003?
A. DMI
B. SSH-2
C. WBEM
D. Open SSH
E. WMI Mapper proxy
Answer: E

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NO.14 HP SIM 5.1 removes support for which product?
A. Oracle9i on HP-UX systems
B. HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager
C. PostgreSQL on x64 Linux operating systems
D. Insight Control Management Integrated Installer
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which types of HP Systems Insight Manager tools can be run on target systems? (Select three.)
A. XML-based type aware
B. all-system aware (ASA)
C. Intel system aware (ISA)
D. web launch aware (WLA)
E. single-system aware (SSA)
F. multiple-system aware (MSA)
Answer: DEF

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NO.16 Which package integrates with HP SIM 5.1 to support monitoring and management of Itanium-based
server blades running HP-UX?
A. HP Integrity Essentials
B. HP ProLiant Essentials
C. HP OpenView Operations
D. HP SmartStart Scripting toolkit
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have recently added a ProLiant BL20p G1 to the server blade enclosure monitored by PMP. At the
PMP License Administration page, this new server does not appear in the list of servers. Why?
A. The server does not have a valid serial number.
B. The server is too old and not supported by PMP.
C. The server has not yet been discovered by HP SIM.
D. The operating system running on this server is not supported.
E. The HP Insight Management Agents on this server are not at the required version.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which function regarding virtual machines is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. discovery of HP virtual machine systems
B. support for Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 remote console through a Mozilla browser
C. use of VMware Management Interface as a stand-alone tool to launch the remote console
D. not necessary to install VMware Remote Console on the system from which you are launching remote
console
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which protocol requires a special HP SIM component that configures the managed device to send
alerts to the Central Management Server (CMS) because it does not provide alerting capabilities?
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
E. WBEM
Answer: B

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NO.20 When a system administrator attempts to update the firmware on a BladeSystem GbE2c interconnect
switch using HP SIM, the update is unsuccessful. What could be the reason?
A. The HP SIM server is running on Linux.
B. The VCA agent on the GbE2c interconnect switch is not active.
C. The GbE2c interconnect switch is not licensed for firmware upgrades.
D. The GbE2c interconnect switch can only be upgraded using the serial connection.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Building ProCurve Resilient, Adaptive Networks)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the advantages of implementing IP routing technologies at the network edge? (Select two.)
A. provide per-user QoS
B. decrease the load on network core
C. eliminate the need for routing protocols
D. create smaller, localized broadcast domains
E. enhance support for default gateway redundancy
Answer: BD

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NO.2 While analyzing network traffic, you notice that many packets have an 802.1p value of 0. On a
ProCurve switch with default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. No prioritization settings are in effect on the network.
B. The traffic will be mapped to the normal priority queue.
C. The network relies on Layer 3 classification technologies
D. The network is not using the default settings on ProCurve switches.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You will connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to port 8 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl.
Which configuration step will enable the switch to auto-configure the appropriate VLAN for the phone??
A. Enable LLDP-MED in the VLAN 1 configuration context.
B. Configure port 8 as a tagged member of a voice VLAN.
C. Enable LLDP-MED in the configuration context for a voice VLAN.
D. Define port 8 as an LLDP-MED port in the global configuration context.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Under what condition does the IEEE 802.1p field provide end-to-end prioritization?
A. All switches can classify traffic based on DSCP.
B. Source and destination hosts are in the same VLAN.
C. The network is experiencing high levels of congestion.
D. All links in the path between source and destination are tagged.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which condition is necessary to enable a group of networks to be auto-summarized by a ProCurve
Switch 3500yl?
A. The address ranges to be summarized must be within different OSPF areas.
B. The address ranges to be summarized must be within a classful network boundary.
C. The address ranges to be summarized must be directly connected to a neighbor router.
D. The address ranges to be summarized must be accessible through a neighbor router interface.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?
A. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.
B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.
C. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.
D. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You must configure QoS on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl in the core layer of a network. One interface on
the switch receives traffic that uses only Layer 3 markers to indicate priority. What must you do to enable
the switch to forward this traffic with correct priority?
A. Set the QoS trust level to the appropriate value.
B. Enable the appropriate interpretation of the IP ToS field.
C. Configure port-based priorities for all ports forwarding this traffic.
D. Configure custom IEEE 802.1p maps for all ports forwarding this traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.8 How many priority levels are specified by the IEEE 802.1p standard?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8 D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.9 You enter the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl:
3500.l(config)#ip route 22.0.0.0/8 172.16.100.100
However, when you enter show ip route to confirm your entry, no route to 22.0.0.0/8 appears in the route
table. Which
statement explains this condition?
A. The interface connected to 172.16.100.100 is down.
B. The switch has learned another route to 22.0.0.0/8 through OSPF.
C. The route table already includes a default route using 172.16.100.100.
D. The switch has not been configured with an IP address of 172.16.100.100.
Answer:A

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NO.10 By default, what type of route is redistributed in RIP updates by ProCurve ProVision ASIC switches?
A. static
B. default
C. OSPF
D. connected
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is a difference between voice traffic and video traffic?
A. Voice traffic is typically more difficult to route than streaming video traffic.
B. Voice traffic is typically more sensitive to delay than streaming video traffic.
C. Voice traffic is typically less sensitive to jitter than streaming video traffic.
D. Voice traffic is typically more bandwidth-intensive than streaming video traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the role of an OSPF Area Border Router?
A. to connect multiple non-backbone areas
B. to connect a backbone area to non-backbone areas
C. to connect OSPF domains with domains that use other routing protocols
D. to connect a backbone area to the backbones of other OSPF routing domains
Answer: B

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NO.13 You must determine if the default settings on ProCurve 5406zl switches will provide adequate QoS for
a multimedia training application. What must you learn about the application in order to make this
determination?
A. if it recognizes IGMP joins from receivers
B. if it uses TCP or UDP as a transport protocol
C. if it inserts Layer 2 or Layer 3 priority markers
D. if it supports Guaranteed Minimum Bandwidth
Answer: C

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NO.14 When does a router use administrative distance to determine which route to include in its route table?
A. when the router learned about multiple routes with equal-cost paths to the same destination
B. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using the
same routing protocol
C. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different routing protocols
or static configuration
D. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.15 While analyzing network traffic using a port monitor on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, you notice that
many packets have an 802.1p value of 1. If the switch has default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
B. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
C. Another device has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
D. Another device has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When does an LLDP-enabled switch start sending LLDP advertisements?
A. when QoS is enabled
B. when IP multicast is enabled
C. immediately after it has started
D. when it receives an LLDP request from a neighbor
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is an advantage of locating routing intelligence at the edge of an enterprise network instead of in
the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
B. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and other protocols for default gateway redundancy.
C. The edge-oriented strategy enables ACLs and other traffic filters to be applied before traffic traverses
any part of the network.
D. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies summarization because each router must support VLANs only
for directly connected users.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the difference between administrative distance and cost?
A. Administrative distance is applied only to routes learned through OSPF. Cost applies to RIP routes as
well as OSPF routes.
B. Administrative distance indicates the distance to remote networks learned through routing protocols.
Cost applies static routes and directly connected networks.
C. Administrative distance is determined solely through interactions among routers that share a routing
protocol. Cost can be defined by the administrator of each router.
D. Administrative distance is a locally significant value that can be used to break ties between routes
learned from different sources. Cost is a cumulative metric that indicates the number of hops to a remote
network.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the effect when the following command is entered at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-111)#qos priority 2
A. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with normal priority.
B. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with lower than normal priority.
C. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with higher than normal priority.
D. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will retain the priority marker set by another device.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You must design an IP addressing scheme for a network that must support 16 different types of users,
each with
different resource and security requirements. What is an advantage of ensuring that the number of
networks assigned to
each type of user is a power of 2?
A. It enables automatic summarization at classful boundaries.
B. It minimizes the number of VLANs required to support each type of user.
C. It ensures that an adequate number of IP addresses will be available for each type of user.
D. It simplifies summarization because all networks for each type of user can be summarized in a single
routing statement.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-083
Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS Network Administration)
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 A netstat -r command on node 16.112.138.25 displays the following information:
Routing tables
Destination Gateway Flags Refs Use Interface
Route Tree for Protocol Family 26:
Route Tree for Protocol Family 2:
default 16.112.128.1 UGS 2 94624 WE0
16.112.128 belize U 1 48405 WE0
belize belize UHL 0 0 WE0
LOCALHOST LOCALHOST UHL 49 13939757 LO0
16.10.121.2 16.112.128.3 UGHS 3 57536 WE0
Which route is used to ping node 16.3.12.47?
A. LOCALHOST
B. default
C. 16.112.128
D. 16.10.121.2
Answer: B

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NO.2 You need to present four names to an IP network. What is the minimal hardware configuration
required?
A. one server with one NIC
B. one server with four NICs
C. two servers with two NICs each
D. four servers with one NIC each
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which types of routing can you set up on an OpenVMS system? Select TWO.
A. fixed
B. static
C. flexible
D. adaptive
E. dynamic
Answer: BE

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NO.4 What advantage do TCP broadcast packets have over UDP broadcast packets?
A. They can be routed.
B. They are better compressed.
C. They have a shorter round trip time.
D. They implement a one to many message.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What do you do to preserve site-specific parameter settings and commands for a specific TCPIP
service?
A. Edit SYS$SYSTARTUP:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
B. Edit SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
C. Create files of the form SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
D. Create files of the form SYS$STARTUP:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer requires that users can establish interactive sessions across the network, but they will NOT
allow passwords to be sent in the clear. What can you use to satisfy this dual requirement?
A. RSH
B. SSH
C. RLOGIN
D. SET HOST
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which technique can you apply to connect two network segments with nodes having the same
addresses?
A. Active Directory
B. Domain Name System
C. Network Address Translation
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a function of TCPIP$INETACP?
A. monitoring all pseudo devices
B. ensuring that network servers are running
C. maintaining the routing table
D. listening for and dispatching incoming connections
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which DECnet configuration files need to be kept synchronized in an OpenVMS cluster? Select TWO.
A. NETOBJECT.DAT
B. NET$MANAGE.DAT
C. NET$SECURITY.DAT
D. NETNODE_LOCAL.DAT
E. NETPROXY.DAT/NET$PROXY.DAT
Answer: AE

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NO.10 66.96.0 255.255.255.192
A. 62
B. 64
C. 191
D. 192
E. 254
Answer: A

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10. Which network device forwards packets between IP subnets?
A. bridge
B. hub
C. switch
D. router
Answer: D

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NO.11 How many hosts can be configured using the IP network and subnet mask shown below?

NO.12 What is a similarity between TCPIP proxy and DECnet proxy?
A. both use the same proxy database
B. both allow remote users anonymous access
C. both use AUTHORIZE to manage their database
D. both allow remote users to transparently access files
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have a system with three network adapters. How would you benefit from having two adapters on
the same subnet?
A. network connectivity failover
B. load balancing of MOP traffic
C. route two networks through OpenVMS system
D. allows the system to use one adapter for send and the other for receive
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the function of the ARP protocol?
A. to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
B. to resolve service names to port assignments
C. to ensure quality of service (QoS) for a connection
D. to determine the shortest path between two IP nodes
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which protocol does GateD use to advertise routes?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. OSPF
D. ESNMP
Answer: C

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NO.16 How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. 64
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a function of ICMP?
A. sharing web pages between nodes
B. translating names to addresses
C. transporting and routing information
D. sharing IP status and error information
Answer: D

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NO.18 How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B

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NO.19 What happens if the "Retransmit Threshold" of the OSI transport is exceeded?
A. server process exits
B. connection is dropped
C. DECnet hangs
D. system shuts down
Answer: B

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NO.20 A user needs to run a TCP/IP application using an unprivileged account. Which port numbers are
available for this?
A. any free port above 511
B. any free port above 1023
C. any free port above 2047
D. any free port above 4095
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-091
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 149 Q&As

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NO.1 Which commands can be used to create device files? Select TWO.
A.mkdevice
B.insf
C.fsadm
D.mksf
E.devstart
Correct:B D

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NO.2 Place the steps to install a fibre channel card in the correct order.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.3 What does the pvcreate command create?
A.a hard partition
B.a physical volume device file
C.the lvm disk resident structures
D.the physical links
Correct:C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the lost+found directory?
A.allows fsck to recover orphaned files and directories
B.required on JFS file systems for journaling
C.functions as a trash can for the file system
D.a temporary storage for deleted files
Correct:A

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NO.5 How does root allow an ordinary user to add/remove printers in SAM?
A.not possible
B.edit sam.allow
C.set the UID bit
D.establish a restricted build
Correct:D

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NO.6 What do physical volume links (pv links) provide?
A.access to a spare disk
B.automatic load balancing
C.an alternate path to a disk
D.improved RAID performance
Correct:C

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NO.7 You attempt to unmount a file system, /mydata, and get an error stating "device busy". How do
you determine the cause?
A.showmount -a
B.fuser -uc /mydata
C.showmount /mydata
D.mount -v /mydata
E.cat /etc/mnttab
Correct:B

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NO.8 What could possibly solve a paging problem?
A.add more NICs
B.add more CPUs
C.add more memory
D.add more internal disks
E.increase swap space
Correct:C

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NO.9 How do you change a volume group name without unloading the data?
A.It is not possible.
B.vgchange
C.vgexport, mkdir, mknod, vgimport
D.vgremove, mkdir, mknod, vgcreate
Correct:C

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NO.10 During a run-state change from run level 1 to run level 2 , which script would be run last?
A./sbin/rc2.d/K900nfs.server
B./sbin/rc2.d/S500inetd
C./sbin/rc2.d/S430nfs.client
D./sbin/rc2.d/K200tps.rc
E./sbin/rc2.d/S620xfs
Correct:E

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NO.11 Which command is used to recreate the /stand/system file?
A.system_prep
B.mkkernal
C.vi system
D.frecover
E.sysgen
Correct:A

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NO.12 Which command shows all physical volumes in a volume group?
A.vgdisplay
B.pvdisplay
C.lvdisplay
D.lvmdisplay
Correct:A

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NO.13 Order the steps required to perform a complete integrity check of a journaled file system.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice7---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.14 How do you set up a device swap area and ensure it is active at each system startup?
A.Start device swapping using the swapon command on an existing file system mount point.
B.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/fstab
file.
C.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/sbtab
file.
D.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/vfstab
file.
Correct:B

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NO.15 Which level is used by fbackup to complete a full backup?
A.0
B.1
C.9
D.F
E.V
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which file does an HP-UX administrator edit to turn the bootp daemon on at boot?
A./etc/bootp
B./etc/inetd.conf
C./etc/rc.config.d/netconf
D./etc/rc.config.d/netdaemon
Correct:B

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NO.17 Which statement is true regarding a device file's major number?
A.It is determined by its hardware address.
B.It points to the associated kernel driver.
C.It is used to allocate buffer space.
D.It determines the device's interrupt priority.
E.It sets the kernel response timeout in tics.
Correct:B

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NO.18 In which directory does HP-UX supply default templates for the user startup files?
A./usr/home
B./etc/skel
C./home/template
D./etc/tmp
Correct:B

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NO.19 If /tmp is 100% full, which commands are used to determine its volume location and if free space
is available on that disk?
A.bdf, vgdisplay
B.lvdisplay, diskinfo
C.bdf, lvdisplay, pvdisplay
D.vgdisplay, lvdisplay, diskinfo
Correct:C

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NO.20 What describes the difference between block and character I/O?
A.Block I/O is used to send data to disk and character I/O is not.
B.Character I/O is used to send data to disk and block I/O is not.
C.Block I/O goes through the buffer cache and character I/O does not.
D.Character I/O goes through the buffer cache and block I/O does not.
E.Block I/O is for large data transfers only and character I/O is for small data transferd only.
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S16
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the function of ECC memory?
A. It only detects single-bit errors.
B. It detects and corrects single-bit errors.
C. It detects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
D. It detects and corrects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the standard HP warranty on optional components such as mezzanines, fans, and power
supplies?
A. 1-1-1 (1 year parts; 1 year labor; 1 year onsite limited global warranty)
B. 3-3-3 (3 year parts; 3 year labor; 3 year onsite limited global warranty)
C. 1-0-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer)
D. 1-1-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer; 1 year labor)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Onboard Administrator is the primary by default?
A. the left one
B. the right one
C. the active one
D. the first one installed
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which HP server blade uses the Itanium processor?
A. SB40c
B. BL485c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL2x220c
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades support HP-UX? (Select two.)
A. BL465c
B. BL680c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL870c
F. BL2x220c
Answer: DE

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NO.6 What is the minimum number of power supplies required in a BladeSystem c-Class when using
threephase
power?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which processors use a 64-bit x86-based architecture? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium
B. AMD Opteron
C. Intel Pentium IV
D. Intel Pentium M
E. Intel Xeon Quad Core
Answer: BE

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NO.8 Which options exist when you enable HP NIC teaming? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. CISCO Layer 4 teaming
C. socket layered balancing
D. NIC assisted load balancing
E. switch assisted load balancing
Answer: AE

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NO.9 Which storage technology is used with Serial Attached SCSI?
A. NUMA
B. shared bus
C. one-to-many
D. point-to-point
Answer: D

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NO.10 How is BladeSystem Integrated Manager installed by default?
A. as part of a SmartStart installation
B. with the initial installation of HP SIM
C. as an add-on after HP SIM is installed
D. with a separate license key in HP SIM
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M24
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Operations Manager Software v8 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which communication technology is used by policy management to deploy policies to a DCE
agent on Windows?
A.WMI
B.RPC
C.SNMP
D.DCOM
Correct:B

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of deployment jobs that are active for the same node?
A.1
B.5
C.10
D.12
Correct:A

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NO.3 As an OM for Windows administrator, you are developing a policy that will create specialized
messages for each entry in a log file. You are NOT sure if you already covered all possible entries
(events). How can you as an administrator collect 'unmatched events' so that you are able to
analyze these and enhance your policy withoutdisturbing the operator's daily work? (Select two.)
A.Use the 'Log local events that don't match any rule' feature.
B.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the active Message browser' feature.
C.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the management server log file' feature.
D.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the acknowledged Message browser' feature.
Correct:A D

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding policy groups? (Select two.)
A.A policy group can contain other policy groups.
B.A policy group can contain policies of different policy types.
C.A policy group always contains the latest version of a policy.
D.A policy group can only contain policies of the same platform.
E.A policy group can contain different versions of the same policy.
Correct:A B

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NO.5 You have 30 rules in one policy. How can you set the same message key in the outgoing
messages for all the rules that have already been created? (Select two.)
A.Change the message key field in each of the 30 rules separately.
B.Select all 30 rules. Choose 'Modify' and 'outgoing message' and overwrite the message key field.
C.Choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the message key field. This overwrites the current
message key of each rule.
D.If the message key was NOT already set, choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the
message key field. This will be applied for all
E.
Correct:A D

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NO.6 You want to monitor the free disk space on a managed node. You want to get a critical message
the first time the free space is below 20%. If the disk free space stays below 20%, you want to get
warning messages. What is the easiest way to achieve this?
A.Use Scripting and store if the rule matched the first time or not in a SESSION variable.
B.Use the start action to create the critical message and the continue action to create the warning
message.
C.There is no special configuration necessary. If a threshold is violated multiple times, then warning
messages will be created automatically after
D.
E.Specify two threshold rules (using 20% both times). In the first rule, select 'first time only' and create the
critical message. In the second rule,
F.
Correct:B

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NO.7 What happens if you have placed version 1.0 of a policy in Policy Management->Polices
Groups->MyWebServers and then create version 1.1 of the same policy below Policy
Management->Polices Grouped by Type?
A.Version 1.0 and version 1.1 of the policy are now in the policy group.
B.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is automatically updated to version 1.1.
C.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is NOT automatically updated to version 1.1.
D.Version 1.1 of the policy CANNOT be created because version 1.0 is already in a policy group.
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which type of policy allows only one deployed policy per node?
A.Nodeinfo
B.SNMP Interceptor
C.Service Discovery
D.Open Message Interface
E.Flexible Management
Correct:E

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NO.9 What can you use to configure outages? (Select two.)
A.an outage server policy type
B.the node menu in the console for unplanned outagesthe node? menu in the console for unplanned
outages
C.the service's menu in the console for scheduled outages
D.the command line tool ovowserviceutil for unplanned outages
E.the ovpolicy tool to disable the policies for the nodes in outage
Correct:B D

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NO.10 You manually installed the agent software on a Windows node. When you look at the package
inventory on the server, this shows an empty list. What do you have to doto be able to see the
actual complete package inventory?
A.Execute 'Redeploy all'.
B.Execute 'opcsw -installed'.
C.Execute 'Synchronize packages' from the node pop-up menu.
D.Deploy a policy. This implicitly synchronizes the complete package inventory.
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J24
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 You are required to cascade 2 units of HP B-Series 8Gb/s SAN switches using a 50/125 micron LC-LC
fiber optic cable. The remote SAN switch is connected to an MSL Tape Library. What is the maximum
cable length possible?
A.21 meters
B.150 meters
C.300 meters
D.500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the benefit of having an SDLT tape drive that uses a linear recording technology where the tape
media is moved past the stationary read/write heads?
A.Data stripes that are recorded in vertical format over constant tape media speed provide reliable
recording.
B.Higher data density is recorded in the media in diagonal stripes format.
C.It is more reliable due to fewer moving parts and longer lifespan for the tape media.
D.A single media roller provides better tape tension during reading or writing.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP StorageWorks systems can use zero downtime backup technology and remote replications
solutions? (Select two.)
A.VLS Series
B.EML Series
C.XP Series
D.MSA2000 Series
E.EVA Series
Answer: CE

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NO.4 Given the following backup tape rotation scheme:
Incremental backup daily from Monday to Friday using 1 tape
Full backup every Saturday using 1 tape
Tape rotation rule: GFS scheme
Tape retention rule: Son tape overwrites weekly; Father tape only used every Saturday
A month is calculated as 5 Saturdays.
How many tapes are required to run one month of backups?
A.6
B.11
C.12
D.15
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two-stage backup configuration would you recommend to SMB customers who want a solution
that is easy to install and manage?
A.Mezzanine Backup Solution
B.VLS1000i with MSL2024 Tape Libraries
C.MSA2000fc with MSL2048 Tape Libraries
D.D2D Backup System
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are advantages of using HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems over traditional backup that
uses tape media? (Select two.)
A.It provides data protection.
B.It is a scalable Enterprise SAN solution.
C.It enables non-disruptive scalability using Capacity on Demand.
D.It is the safest way to store data for the long term.
E.It provides online access to backup data.
Answer: AE

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NO.7 What is a benefit of a disk-to-disk-to-tape backup configuration in an Enterprise Backup Solution?
A.The backup data are copied to a host-managed, low-cost disk to facilitate restores and enable short
term archival storage.
B.Because the speed of staging disks is much higher than the tape speed, the window for
disk-to-disk-to-tape backup shrinks dramatically.
C.All file transfers are controlled by the storage system software, and transfer to tape occurs through
servers that send the data.
D.The backup application backs up the primary disk data to the staging disk, allowing for quick restores of
single files.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which elements form the backup and restore basics? (Select four.)
A.backup strategies
B.tape rotation scheme
C.journal replication
D.agents selection
E.type of data to backup
F.remote replication
G.correct tape devices
Answer: ABEG

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NO.9 Given the following third-party copy sequence:
Step 1 Server initiates backup by sending list of blocks to be backed up to the third-party device.
Step 2 Third-party device issues commands to the external disk subsystem.
Step 3
Step 4External disk subsystem sends data to tape library.
Which action is taken in Step 3?
A.Fibre Channel loop performs LIP.
B.Server IP address is changed.
C.Snapshot is taken.
D.Server backup agent is stopped.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Given a drive with the following features:
optical servo tracking
magneto-resistive cluster heads
fewer roller guides than previous generation drive
Which type of drive correctly matches the description?
A.AIT
B.DAT
C.SDLT
D.LTO
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP2-027
Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business
desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution
across an enterprise environment?
A. Altiris Deployment Server
B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software
C. HP Essentials software
D. HP Client Manager tool
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN
(802.11b/g/a) access?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. RADIUS
D. BOOTP
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86
server environment?
A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources
B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure
C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors
D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server
platform? Select TWO.
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP AlphaServers
C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers
D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they
are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve
their old data by reading backward two generations.
Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select
TWO.
A. SDLT
B. AIT
C. LTO
D. DLT
E. SLR
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution
(VoIP)?
A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF)
B. Packet caching (Pcache)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. VLAN routing (vlanR)
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling?
A. lower reliance on hubs and switches
B. longer distances
C. easier implementation
D. lower cost
Answer: B

HP   HP2-027   HP2-027

NO.8 Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit
architecture?
A. Clustered DNS Server
B. Clustered Print Spooling
C. High Performance Computing
D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions?
A. rp4440-4
B. rp4440-8
C. rp7420-6
D. rp8420-32
Answer: C

HP   HP2-027   HP2-027

NO.10 Which backup method provides the lowest TCO?
A. shared SCSI backup
B. local SCSI backup
C. data replication backup
D. automated centralized backup
Answer: A

HP   HP2-027   HP2-027   HP2-027

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