2013年8月30日星期五

Le plus récent matériel de formation SPSS IBMSPSSMBPDA

Il demande les connaissances professionnelles pour passer le test SPSS IBMSPSSMBPDA. Si vous manquez encore ces connaissances, vous avez besoin de Pass4Test comme une resourece de ces connaissances essentielles pour le test. Pass4Test et ses experts peuvent vous aider à renfocer ces connaissances et vous offrir les Q&As. Pass4Test fais tous efforts à vous aider à se renforcer les connaissances professionnelles et à passer le test. Choisir le Pass4Test peut non seulement à obtenir le Certificat SPSS IBMSPSSMBPDA, et aussi vous offrir le service de la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an. Si malheureusement, vous ratez le test, votre argent sera 100% rendu.

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Code d'Examen: IBMSPSSMBPDA
Nom d'Examen: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler - Business Partner Data Analyst Associate Exam)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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Vous pouvez s'exercer en Internet avec le démo gratuit. Vous allez découvrir que la Q&A de Pass4Test est laquelle le plus complète. C'est ce que vous voulez.

Le plus récent matériel de formation Cloudera CCA-410

Avec l'aide du Pass4Test, vous allez passer le test de Certification Cloudera CCA-410 plus facilement. Tout d'abord, vous pouvez choisir un outil de traîner de Cloudera CCA-410, et télécharger les Q&A. Bien que il y en a beaucoup de Q&A pour les tests de Certification IT, les nôtres peuvent vous donner non seulement plus de chances à s'exercer avant le test réel, mais encore vous feront plus confiant à réussir le test. La haute précision des réponses, la grande couverture des documentations, la mise à jour constamment vous assurent à réussir votre test. Vous dépensez moins de temps à préparer le test, mais vous allez obtenir votre certificat plus tôt.

Si vous travaillez quand même très dur et dépensez beaucoup de temps pour préparer le test Cloudera CCA-410, mais ne se savez pas du tout c'est où le raccourci pour passer le test certification, Pass4Test peut vous donner une solution efficace. Vous vous sentirez magiquement jouer un effet multiplicateur.

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Code d'Examen: CCA-410
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop CDH4)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by removing the
NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services of an active
NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a cluster
administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple, independent
NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F

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NO.3 Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you set the
HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to copy data
between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what's the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the DataNode
is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

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Dernières AFP CTP examen pratique questions et réponses

Pass4Test est aussi un site d'offrir la ressource des connaissances pour le test Certification IT. Selon les Feedbacks venus de gens qui ont untilié les produits de Pass4Test, Pass4Test est un site fiable comme l'outil de se former. Les Q&As offertes par Pass4Test sont bien précises. Les experts de Pass4Test mettent à jour nos documentations de formation de temps de temps.

Au 21er siècle, il manque encore grand nombreux de gens qualifié de IT. Le test Certificat IT est une bonne façon à examiner les hommes de talent. Ce n'est pas un test facile à réussir. Un bon choix de formation est une assurance pour le succès de test. Le test simulation est bien proche que test réel. Vous pouvez réussir 100%, bien que ce soit la première à participer le test.

Dans cette société bien intense, c'est avantage si quelque'un a une technique particulère, donc c'est pourquoi beaucoup de gens ont envie de dépnenser les efforts et le temps à préparer le test AFP CTP, mais ils ne peuvaient pas réussir finalement. C'est juste parce que ils ont pas bien choisi une bonne formation. L'outil de formation lancé par les experts de Pass4Test vous permet à passer le test AFP CTP coûtant un peu d'argent.

Dans ce monde d'informatique, l'industrie IT est suivi par de plus en plus de ges. Dans ce domaine demandant beaucoup de techniques, il faut des Certificat à se preuver les techniques professionnelle. Les Certificats IT sont improtant pour un interviewé pendant un entretien. C'est pas facile à passer le test AFP CTP, donc c'est pourquoi beaucoup de professionnels qui choisissent ce Certificat pour se preuver.

Code d'Examen: CTP
Nom d'Examen: AFP (Certified Treasury Professional )
Questions et réponses: 612 Q&As

Bien qu'Il y ait plein de talentueux dans cette société, il manque beaucoup de professionnels dans les domaine en cours de développement, l'Industrie IT est l'un de ces domaines. Donc le test AFP CTP est un bon l'examination de technique informatique. Pass4Test est un site d'offrir la formation particulière au test AFP CTP.

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CTP Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CTP.html

NO.1 Which of the following are important uses of variance analysis in comparing actual cash flows with
projected cash flows?
I. Identifying unanticipated changes in inventory
II. Enhancing short-term investment income
III. Validating a capital budget
IV. Identifying delays in accounts receivable collections
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following instruments simplifies the paperwork connected with loans that have multiple
advance features?
A. Master note
B. Banker's acceptance
C. Indenture agreement
D. Note purchase agreement
Answer: A

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NO.3 A put option on a company's stock has an exercise price of $20. On the delivery date, the stock is
trading at $24 per share. What should the investor who has paid $2 for the option do?
A. Not exercise the option and lose $2.
B. Not exercise the option and lose $6.
C. Exercise the option and gain $2.
D. Exercise the option and gain $4.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following ties a user ¯ s p ri va t e key t o a use¡ ¯s pu b l ic key
A. A digital signature
B. A digital certificate
C. A digitized signature
D. A digital token
Answer: B

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NO.5 Account analysis statements should be examined for which of the following reasons?
I. To verify volumes processed
II. To determine daily cash shortages
III. To verify the accuracy of bank service charges
IV. To ensure that company-initiated transactions have occurred
A. I and IV only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company is based in the United States and has an operating subsidiary in Germany. With a stable
U.S. dollar and a depreciating euro, the company's cash manager may elect to:
A. pool excess funds in the United States to offset German deficits.
B. implement a dollar-based multilateral netting system.
C. start leading receivables from the German subsidiary.
D. establish a multicurrency account in the United States.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Netting is used by which of the following as a cross-border payment technique?
A. European giro providers
B. Foreign subsidiaries of a company
C. Counterparties in a letter of credit transaction
D. TARGET participants
Answer: B

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NO.8 On the basis of the following exchange rates,
which of the following currency amounts has the greatest value in U.S. dollars?
A. C$750,000
B. ¡ê850,00
C. 900,000
D. £¤5,000,000
Answer: B

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NO.9 A Chicago meat processor is concerned about the volatility of pork belly prices. Which of the following
derivative products would be used to fix these prices within a given range?
A. Collar
B. Swap
C. Cap
D. Spot purchase
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company plans to issue additional equity within the next 12 months but needs to issue debt at a low
interest rate now. Which of the following instruments would BEST meet this objective?
A. Convertible bonds
B. Private placement issue
C. Preferred stock
D. Subordinated debentures
Answer: A

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NO.11 An arrangement in which a borrower makes periodic payments to a separate custodial account that is
used to repay debt is known as a:
A. sinking fund
B. balloon payment
C. mortgage
D. zero-coupon bond
Answer: A

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NO.12 A French company conducts business strictly within the euro zone (the EMU). Which type of risk is of
LEAST concern?
A. Terrorist
B. Regulatory
C. Payment
D. Currency
Answer: D

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NO.13 A bank issues a letter of credit (L/C) and receives a request for payment under the L/C. The buyer
notifies the issuing bank not to make payment because there is a dispute over the quality of the
merchandise. However, the documents received fully comply with the terms of the L/C. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. The buyer may immediately return the merchandise and cancel the L/C.
B. The bank may delay payment until reimbursed by the buyer.
C. The bank may delay payment, provided the seller is notified of the dispute within three business days.
D. The bank must make payment and is entitled to immediate reimbursement from the buyer.
Answer: D

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NO.14 An optimal concentration system minimizes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. administrative costs.
B. disbursement float.
C. excess balances.
D. transfer costs.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The KEY decision in using CCD+ and CTX formats for B2B payments is:
A. whether to keep the payment and remittance information together or separate.
B. whether to use the Internet or an EDI spoke to transmit electronic payments.
C. whether to use an EDI or a UN/EDIFACT protocol to transfer the value electronically.
D. whether an evaluated receipts or paid-on-production technique is being used for the transfer.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A call option for a company has an exercise price of $50. The stock is currently trading at $60. At
maturity, what should an investor who paid $3 for the option do?
A. Exercise the option and gain $7.
B. Exercise the option and gain $10.
C. Not exercise the option and lose $3.
D. Not exercise the option and lose $13.
Answer: A

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NO.17 An instrument that gives the right to buy a stated number of shares of common stock at a specified price
is known as:
A. an equity warrant
B. a put option
C. a zero coupon bond
D. a subordinated debenture
Answer: A

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NO.18 In a typical swap transaction, two parties agree to exchange:
A. notional principal amounts.
B. amortization schedules.
C. maturity dates of obligations.
D. cash flows at future points in time.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is a characteristic of giro systems used in countries in Europe?
A. They operate through their postal systems.
B. They are primarily used for company-to-company payments.
C. They do not replace checks for the payment of bills.
D. They do not allow the use of direct debits and credits.
Answer: A

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NO.20 In which of the following international cash management methods is title for goods transferred for
intercompany sales?
A. Pooling
B. Internal factoring
C. Multilateral netting
D. Re-invoicing
Answer: D

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But que Pass4Test n'offre que les produits de qualité est pour vous aider à réussir le test AFP CTP 100%. Le test simulation offert par Pass4Test est bien proche de test réel. Si vous ne pouvez pas passer le test AFP CTP, votre argent sera tout rendu.

Magento M70-201 examen pratique questions et réponses

Dans cette Industrie IT intense, le succès de test Magento M70-201 peut augmenter le salaire. Les gens d'obtenir le Certificat Magento M70-201 peuvent gagner beaucoup plus que les gens sans Certificat Magento M70-201. Le problème est comment on peut réussir le test plus facile?

Selon les anciens test Magento M70-201, la Q&A offerte par Pass4Test est bien liée avec le test réel.

Il y a nombreux façons à vous aider à réussir le test Magento M70-201. Le bon choix est l'assurance du succès. Pass4Test peut vous offrir le bon outil de formation, lequel est une documentation de qualité. La Q&A de test Magento M70-201 est recherchée par les experts selon le résumé du test réel. Donc l'outil de formation est de qualité et aussi autorisé, votre succès du test Magento M70-201 peut bien assuré. Nous allons mettre le jour successivement juste pour répondre les demandes de tous candidats.

Pass4Test peut offrir la facilité aux candidats qui préparent le test Magento M70-201. Nombreux de candidats choisissent le Pass4Test à préparer le test et réussir finalement à la première fois. Les experts de Pass4Test sont expérimentés et spécialistes. Ils profitent leurs expériences riches et connaissances professionnelles à rechercher la Q&A Magento M70-201 selon le résumé de test réel Magento M70-201. Vous pouvez réussir le test à la première fois sans aucune doute.

Pass4Test est un site professionnel qui répondre les demandes de beaucoup clients. Les candidats qui ont déjà passer leurs premiers test Certification IT ont devenus les suivis de Pass4Test. Grâce à la bonne qualité des documentations, Pass4Test peut aider tous candidats à réussir le test Magento M70-201.

Code d'Examen: M70-201
Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam )
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 A custom frontend controller will extend which one of the following classes?
A. Mage_Core_Controller_Front_Action
B. Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
C. Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Front
D. Mage_Core_Controller_Abstract
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following API calls allows you to fetch the list of related products using the native
Magento API?
A. catalog_product_link.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
B. catalog_product.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
C. catalog_product_related.list, with argument $product_id
D. catalog_product_option.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which kind of class is responsible for calculating the actual amount of reward points in every case?
A. Reward model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Reward)
B. Action model (derivatives from Entet:prise_Reward_Model_Action)
C. Event model (derivatives from Enterprise_Reward_Model_Event)
D. Calculation model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Calculator)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following actions will enable logging via calls to debugData() on a native Magento
payment method model?
A. Set the protected property $_debug of the payment model to true
B. Set the config node default/payment/debug/ [method code] to 1
C. Call Mage::register ('payment_method_debug_' . [method code], true);
D. Set the config node default/payment/ [method code]/debug to 1
E. Call setDebug(true) on the payment method model
Answer: D

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NO.5 To implement a standard Adminhtml form for a custom data model, which two of the following must you
do? (Choose two)
A. Declare your module's block class prefix in the config.xml file.
B. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget_Form.
C. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Abstract.
D. Create sub-classes of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Element_Abstract for each form field to be
presented.
E. Add a set of configuration values in the module's config-xml defining the form fields to be displayed.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Applying the shopping cart rule's action affects the quote item by setting the quote item's
_______________.
A. base_price and price properties with the discounted price
B. base_discount_amount and discount_amount with the discount applied to the original price
C. base_row_total and cow_total properties with the discounted price
D. base_price_incl_tax and price_incl_tax properties with the discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.7 When setData (' some', 'value') is called on an EAV entity and the entity is saved to the database,
A. The 'value' of the attribute named 'some' is saved in the eav_values table
B. The 'value' of the attribute named ' some' is saved in one of the entity's tables depending on its
datatype (for example, entityname_varchar)
C. The data will be stored in the EAV registry making ' some' 'value' available to the entity
D. The 'value' of the attribute named T some' is saved in the eav attribute values table
Answer: B

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NO.8 What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Helper
C. Model
D. Resource model
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _is Allowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 When changes are made to more than one of a collection's items using setData( 'some', 'value'), which
of the following methods will save the changes in the collection?
A. $collection->saveAll();
B. $collection->saveItems ();
C. $collection->saveAllItems ()?
D. $collection->save();
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following block methods is the best to override when there is a need to customize how the
block's html is rendered?
A. _toHtml()
B. toHtmlO
C. setLayout ()
D. renderLayout ()
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. Pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. Capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?
A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered template can be
overridden via layout XML.
B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by name.
C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is rendered.
D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template
E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an output block.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?
Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default
CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router
Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Standard
Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin
A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default
B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin
C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default
D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the purpose of Catalog Target rules?
A. To extend Catalog Price Rules to be used for related products.
B. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of additional products on the product page.
C. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of custom product options.
D. To provide a mechanism for easier selection options for configurable products.
Answer: B

Magento   M70-201 examen   M70-201   M70-201   M70-201

NO.16 When $ this ->load Layout (' foo_bar_baz') is called in a standard front action, what is the effect on the
layout update object instance?
A. foo_bar_baz will be the only handle added
B. loadLayout () does not take any arguments, so there is no effect
C. Only two handles will be added: foo_bar_baz and default
D. Foo_bar_baz will be added instead of the default handle
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three of the following object types will have a parent class found in the Mage_Eav module for the
purposes of EAV data storage in Magento? (Choose three)
A. Data model
B. Data helper
C. Resource model
D. Resource collection
E. Setup class
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 Which one of the following xpaths is correct for replacing Mage_Customer_Model_Custom_Address via
Mage::helper ('customer/address')?
A. Global/customer/helpers/address
B. Global/rewrite/helpers/rewrite/address
C. Global/helpers/customer/rewrite/address
D. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer_address
E. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer/address
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement correctly describes order state and order status?
A. State and status are independent properties of the order.
B. The status is a child of the state.
C. State represents the general state of the order, while status works on item level.
D. An order doesn't have a status, only a state. Status is a property of an invoice, shipment, and credit
memo.
Answer: B

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NO.20 With which three kinds of product relations do Magento Catalog Target Rules deal? (Choose three)
A. The relations between a configurable product and its child products
B. The relations between a bundle product and its child products
C. The relations among products linked as cross-sell products
D. The relations between a product and its custom options
E. The relations among products linked as related products
F. The relations among products linked as upsell products
Answer: C,E,F

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Code d'Examen: CTAL_TM_001
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001 examen

NO.3 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.4 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001

NO.5 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001

NO.6 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   certification CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001

NO.7 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001 examen

NO.8 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

certification ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001

NO.9 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001 examen

NO.10 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TTA_001
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Technical Test Analyst (CTAL-TTA_001))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
determination coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

ISQI   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001

NO.2 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

certification ISQI   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001 examen   CTAL-TTA_001 examen   CTAL-TTA_001

NO.3 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
condition coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

certification ISQI   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001 examen   CTAL-TTA_001

NO.4 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

ISQI   certification CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001

NO.5 The Bonus Program is perceived by management to be critical. Defects in the program would
almost immediately lead to financial loss. In the past an improvement program has been run to
implement review based on IEEE 1028. Knowledge and skills on both formal and informal reviews
are available. There is also an existing pool of review leaders. Which of the following review types
would you choose to review the program? 2 credits [K4]
A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

ISQI   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001 examen   certification CTAL-TTA_001

NO.6 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

ISQI   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001   certification CTAL-TTA_001

NO.7 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically
test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

ISQI examen   certification CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001   CTAL-TTA_001 examen   CTAL-TTA_001

NO.8 You have tested the program and have found that with "bonus" a boundary value has not
been implemented according to design. You have written an incident report. Which of the following
is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: CVA
Nom d'Examen: NACVA (Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA))
Questions et réponses: 251 Q&As

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NO.1 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

NACVA examen   certification CVA   CVA   certification CVA   CVA
5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

NACVA   certification CVA   certification CVA   certification CVA

NO.2 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

NACVA   CVA examen   certification CVA   CVA examen   CVA examen

NO.3 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

NACVA   CVA examen   CVA   CVA

NO.4 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: MSC-235
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Connect Plus Solutions BETA)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer operates a 4-site Connect Plus network. Two sites are adjacent to each other,
with
overlapping coverage. The other two sites respectively service two manufacturing plants that are
approximately 900 kilometers (559 miles) apart. There are approximately 30 talkgroups in the
network and 300 subscribers. When creating the Option Board codeplug for this customer’s
portable radios, which of the following is the best strategy to ensure smooth, logical operation?
A. Create a separate zone for each of the 4 sites to contain all the necessary contact and RSSI
settings.
B. Create a single Connect Plus zone that will address all of their necessary RSSI settings and
contact lists.
C. Create 2 Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings necessary
with this type of topology.
D. Create 3 separate Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings
necessary with this type of topology.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are designing a 3 site Connect Plus system with 12 repeaters per site, no site controller
redundancy, and 3 control channel-capable repeaters at each site. The average number of
subscribers active at a site may approach 300 at any given time of the day. If this customer
experiences a site controller failure, what symptoms and subscriber behavior would you expect
immediately after the failure occurs?
A. All calls in progress at the site will drop. Subscribers will automatically fall back to digital
conventional, allowing users to utilize any of the site’s repeaters.
B. All calls in progress at the site will drop. All subscribers will attempt to roam to one of the other
sites.
C. Calls in progress will remain until one of the other control-channel capable repeaters assumes
the site controller’s role and then they will drop and register on the new controller.
D. Calls in progress will stay up until they complete normally. Subscribers on the control channel
will attempt to roam to one of the other sites.
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions examen   certification MSC-235   MSC-235   MSC-235

NO.3 You are using the Network Manager to connect to a multisite system. Where can you view the
current state of connections to other sites in this multisite system?
A. Event Log Viewer
B. RealTime Display
C. Site Status Window
D. MultiSite Configuration Window
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-235   certification MSC-235

NO.4 Your customer is a rail operator whose system covers approximately 125 kilometers (77 miles)
of
track. Trains travel rapidly, and the operator is using a location tracking application to update their
displayed location as frequently as possible. Location updates are critical, even if this means
putting voice calls into the busy queue. What can you do to ensure this behavior?
A. Make sure that RSSI settings are set to -ll3dBm or less for “RSSI Preferred” in the mobiles in
the trains. This will allow the proper sensitivity to make frequent location updates possible. Give
individual SU records a lower priority than any talkgroup priority.
B. Enhanced GPS must be enabled in the Repeaters and Subscribers. Give individual SU records
a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
C. Call Sessions Configuration in the Network Manager should be set to 29 for the “Number of
Outbound Data Sessions Allowed” field and somewhat less for the Number of Voice/Inbound Data
sessions field. Give individual SU records a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
D. Location updates should be optimized by enabling Advanced GPS with GPS Data Revert
channels.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-235   certification MSC-235   MSC-235   certification MSC-235

NO.5 If there is a failure or reboot of a site controller, which of the following must you consider
regarding
Over The Air (OTA) file transfers (select TWO)?
A. Any transfers in progress at the time of the failure may have to be repeated.
B. The controller will have to be re-entitled for OTA operation after it is back online.
C. If the site controller recovers on a different Control Channel, transfers may have to be
reconfigured.
D. Any pending transfers on that controller will be lost and must be re-queued.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 A Request for Proposal (RFP) for a single-site, operations-critical customer requires you to
respond to the following requirement: “...if the RF site equipment includes network switches,
describe the system behavior in the event of a site LAN switch failure.” Which of the following is
the BEST response to this requirement?
A. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed,the
failure of a site LAN will not affect calls in-progress, but will make it impossible for subscribers to
register at the site.
B. If the single site LAN switch fails, the site master repeater will begin broadcasting failsoft
messages. All subscribers will revert to failsoft operation. The users may select any site repeater
on which to communicate conventionally.
C. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed, the
failure of a site LAN switch will cause all calls to drop and the subscribers will attempt to roam to
an operational site.
D. In the case of a single-site system, Connect Plus does not utilize site LAN switches.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: S90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle: "Services are
supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively __________________ and
__________________." Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.2 Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the Service
Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and its
underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering "loose state" in support of
runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an agnostic
abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship between the service
contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details, whereas
Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in relation to the service
implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of the other
depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of applying the
Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction principle?
Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract receives
a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract content to only what is
deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service's Service Level
Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be easily located by
those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly supports these
design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
Answer: C

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NO.7 When applying the Service Loose Coupling design principle, we want to __________________ the
coupling of the service logic to the service contract because that allows the service contract to remain
__________________ from the service logic. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, decoupled
B. reduce, decoupled
C. increase, coupled
D. reduce, coupled
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract principle is not
followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the purchase of
legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Each time our corporate development team makes a change to the service logic it is required to
publish a new version of the service contract. Our customers are complaining because their service
consumer programs become incompatible with new service contract versions and therefore no longer
work. Which of the following service-orientation principles is most likely to help us solve this on-going
problem? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Loose Coupling
D. Service Autonomy
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation and
SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms and
practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical (shortterm)
requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service-orientation is
required.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or contract of a
service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A   certification S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.12 Which of the following statements is false.? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also composed by other
service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be composed.
Answer: D

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NO.13 As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service compositions to
become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the initial
delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a constant
emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather than
strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure that may
introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 The decoupling of a service contract from the service's underlying implementation results in a(n)
__________________ in the service's level of abstraction because __________________ service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly couple to the
underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding
D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: S90-19A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 ___________ is an industry standard that describes mechanisms for issuing, validating, renewing and
cancelling security tokens.
A. WS-Security
B. WS-Trust
C. WS-SecureConversation
D. WS-SecurityPolicy
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-19A   S90-19A   S90-19A

NO.3 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. XPath injection attack
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Service A has recently been the victim of XPath injection attacks. Messages sent between Service A
and Service C have traditionally been protected via transport-layer security. A redesign of the service
composition architecture introduces Service B, which is positioned as an intermediary service between
Service A and Service C. The Message Screening pattern was applied to the design of Service B. As part
of the new service composition architecture, transport-layer security is replaced with message-layer
security for all services, but Service A and Service C continue to share the same encryption key. After the
new service composition goes live, Service A continues to be subjected to XPath injection attacks. What
is the reason for this?
A. The message screening logic can only work for Service C. Therefore, Service A is not protected.
B. Because message-layer security is being used, it is not possible for the message screening logic in
Service B to inspect messages without having the encryption key that is shared by Service A and Service
C.
C. XPath injection attacks are not prevented by message screening logic or message-layer security.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-19A   S90-19A

NO.5 Service A's logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A's memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then
decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of
the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 When designing XML schemas to avoid data-centric threats, which of the following are valid
considerations?
A. The maxOccurs attribute needs to be specified using a restrictive value.
B. The <xsd:any> element needs to be avoided.
C. The <xsd:restriction> element can be used to create more restrictive user-defined simple types.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Service A needs to be designed so that it supports message integrity and so that only part of the
messages exchanged by the service are encrypted. You are asked to create the security policy for this
service. What type of policy assertions should you use?
A. Token assertions
B. Protection assertions
C. Security binding assertions
D. Service A's security requirements cannot be expressed in a policy
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Service Perimeter Guard pattern has been applied to help avoid denial of service attacks for a
service inventory. As a result, services within the service inventory are only accessible via a perimeter
service However, denial of service attacks continue to succeed and services within the service inventory
become unavailable to external service consumers. What is the likely cause of this?
A. The application of the Service Perimeter Guard pattern needs to be combined with the application of
the Message Screening pattern in order to mitigate denial of service attacks.
B. The perimeter service itself is the victim of denial of service attacks. As a result, none of the services
inside the service inventory can be accessed by external service consumers.
C. The Trusted Subsystem pattern should have been applied so that each service has a dedicated trusted
subsystem.
D. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern does not help avoid denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following can directly contribute to making a service composition architecture more
vulnerable to attacks?
A. Reliance on intermediaries
B. Reliance on transport-layer security
C. Reliance on open networks
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.11 How can the use of pre-compiled XPath expressions help avoid attacks?
A. Pre-compiled XPath expressions execute faster and therefore help avoid denial of service attacks.
B. Pre-compiled XPath expressions reduce the chance of missing escape characters, which helps avoid
XPath injection attacks
C. Pre-compiled XPath expressions contain no white space, which helps avoid buffer overrun attacks
D. They can't because XPath expressions cannot be pre-compiled
Answer: B

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NO.12 The application of the Service Loose Coupling principle does not relate to the use of security policies
as part of service contracts.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-19A   S90-19A

NO.13 An alternative to using a ___________ is to use a __________.
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
Answer: C

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NO.14 The Trusted Subsystem pattern is applied to a service that provides access to a database. Select the
answer that best explains why this service is still at risk of being subjected to an insufficient authorization
attack.
A. Attackers can steal confidential data by monitoring the network traffic that occurs between the service
and the database.
B. Because the Service Perimeter Guard pattern was also not applied, the database is not protected by a
firewall.
C. If an attacker gains access to the security credentials used by the service to access the database, the
attacker can access the database directly.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

certification SOA Certified Professional   S90-19A   S90-19A   S90-19A

NO.15 Security policies defined using WS-SecurityPolicy can be used to convey which of the following
requirements to a service consumer?
A. Whether transport-layer or message-layer security needs to be used
B. The encryption type that needs to be used for transport-layer security
C. The algorithms that need to be used for cryptographic operations
D. The type of security token that must be used
Answer: A,C,D

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