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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-370
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Designing, Deploying and Managing Citrix XenMobile Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 67 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has been instructed to deploy an internal application to mobile
users with iPads. The application will be deployed from XenMobile Device Manager.
Which action should the engineer take first to upload the application?
A. Browse to the .ipa file in the 'Applications' tab.
B. Browse to the .apk file in the 'Applications' tab.
C. Browse to the .mdx file in the 'Applications' tab.
D. Specify the App store URL of the application in the 'Applications' tab.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which connection type is used when WorxWeb for iOS is configured to use Secure Browse
mode?
A. Full VPN
B. Micro VPN
C. STA Tunnel
D. Clientless VPN
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: Support staff need GoToAssist in order to provide clients around the world with
support remotely. In order to complete this request, the Citrix Engineer must configure GoToAssist
with the XenMobile Device Manager and App Controller.
Which two items of GoToAssist information must the engineer enter in both the Device Manager
and App Controller consoles to complete the installation of GoToAssist? (Choose two.)
A. Chat Token
B. Serial Key File token
C. Email Integration Key
D. Web Console Address
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to add 10.10.220.10 as a Subnet IP (SNIP) through the
NetScaler command-line interface. The SNIP will be used to provide connectivity to devices on
another subnet. Management access is required through the SNIP .
Which command should the engineer use?
A. add ns ip -type snip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -mgmtaccess ENABLED
B. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
C. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 -mask 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
D. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP-ssh ENABLED -restrictaccess DISABLED
Answer: B

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9. Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to publish a custom mobile application for iOS devices from
the XenMobile environment.
Security requirements for the application are as follows:
-Clipboard must be disabled.
-Application cannot be installed on jailbroken devices.
Which action must the engineer take to meet the security requirements stated in the scenario?
A. Wrap the .ipa file using the MDX Toolkit for XenMobile and configure the MDX policies.
B. Upload the .ipa file to the XenMobile Device Manager and create a deployment package to install
the application on the user device during device enrollment.
C. Upload the .ipa file directly to App Controller and require enrollment to the XenMobile Device
Manager before users can register with the App Controller.
D. Publish the application for employees using the Apple App Store and require that users download
the application from the Apple App Store instead of the App Controller.
Answer: A

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10. Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to create a proof of concept for a XenMobile project and
needs to ensure that the following requirements are met:
-Users must be able to access corporate web and SaaS applications from their personal mobile
devices.
-Access to Citrix hosted applications and desktops on XenApp and XenDesktop is NOT required at
this time.
-Users' devices should NOT be managed.
-Users will require access to WorxWeb and WorxMail.
Which three components will meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose three.)
A. StoreFront
B. Worx Home
C. MDX Toolkit
D. Citrix Receiver
E. XenMobile App Controller
F. XenMobile Device Manager server
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.5 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer must provide remote users with access to their corporate e-mail
from their mobile devices.
The engineer must ensure remote users' mobile devices meet the following requirements:
-
Mobile devices require a PIN for corporate email.
-
Mobile devices cannot be jailbroken.
-
Mobile devices must be enrolled to XenMobile Device Manager.
-Only iOS devices will have access to corporate email.
Which component should the engineer include in the solution to enforce the requirements outlined
in the scenario?
A. WorxMail
B. App Controller
C. TouchDown mail client
D. XenMobile NetScaler Connector
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three prerequisites must be met to deploy XenMobile Device Manager in a high
availability configuration? (Choose three.)
A. IIS installed and configured on two web servers
B. VIP or host name configured on a load balancer
C. SSL Session Persistence on ports 443 and 8443 on the load balancer
D. SQL Server Database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
E. PostgreSQL database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 What is the recommended procedure for reverting an App Controller high availability (HA) pair
to a previous snapshot?
A. Import the snapshot to the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node and restart
the primary node.
B. Disable high availability, shut down the primary node and import the snapshot to the secondary
node, start the primary node.
C. Disable high availability, shut down the secondary node and import the snapshot to the primary
node,restart the primary node.
D. Shut down the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node, and restart the
primary node, start the secondary node.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Scenario: XenMobile has been selected as the new mobility solution for an organization. The
organization currently has a Citrix XenApp environment with remote access provided through
NetScaler ICA Proxy. A Citrix Engineer needs to redesign the email access solution for remote users
and the organization requires that the new solution integrate with the native iOS Mail.
Which component should be implemented to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. WorxMail
B. Secure Mobile Gateway
C. XenMobile Mail Manager
D. XenMobile NetScaler Connector
Answer: D

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ICBRR dernières questions d'examen certification GARP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: ICBRR
Nom d'Examen: GARP (International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation (ICBRR))
Questions et réponses: 342 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are conclusions that could be drawn from the shape of the statistical
distribution of losses that a bank might incur over a future time period?
I. In most years a bank would look more profitable than it will be on average.
II. Most of the time a sufficiently well capitalized bank will appear over-capitalized.
III. Bad years do not come along very often, but when they do they lead to enormous losses.
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II, III
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about endogenous and external types of liquidity are
accurate?
I. Endogenous liquidity is the liquidity inherent in the bank's assets themselves.
II. External liquidity is the liquidity provided by the bank's liquidity structure to fund its assets and
maturing liabilities.
III. External liquidity is the non-contractual and contingent capital supplied by investors to support
the bank in times of liquidity stress.
IV. Endogenous liquidity is the same as funding liquidity.
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II, IV
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following four statements regarding counterparty credit risk is INCORRECT?
A. Counterparty credit risk refers to the inability to realize gains in a contract with a counterparty due
to its default.
B. The exposure at default is variable due to fluctuations in swap valuations.
C. The exposure at default can be negatively correlated to probability of default.
D. Dynamic collateral provisions often increase counterparty risk considerably.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A risk associate is trying to determine the required risk-adjusted rate of return on a stock using
the Capital Asset Pricing Model. Which of the following equations should she use to calculate the
required return?
A. Required return = risk-free return + beta x market risk
B. Required return = (1-risk free return) + beta x market risk
C. Required return = risk-free return + beta x (1 - market risk)
D. Required return = risk-free return + 1/beta x market risk
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is generally true of the relationship between a bond's yield and it's time to maturity when
the yield curve is upward sloping?
A. The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the lower its yield.
B. The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.
C. The shorter the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.
D. There is no relationship between the two
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following four regulatory drivers for operational risk management includes
risk and control requirements for financial statements in the United States?
A. Basel II Accord
B. Solvency II
C. The Markets in Financial Instruments Directive
D. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: D

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NO.7 How could a bank's hedging activities with futures contracts expose it to liquidity risk?
A. The futures hedge may not work due to the widening of basis which could result in a loss for the
bank.
B. Prices may move such that a loss results on the hedge.
C. Since futures require margins which are settled every day, the bank could find itself scrambling for
funds.
D. The bank could get exposed to liquidity risk since futures trade on an exchange.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A credit risk analyst is evaluating factors that quantify credit risk exposures. The risk that the
borrower would fail to make full and timely repayments of its financial obligations over a given time
horizon typically refers to:
A. Duration of default.
B. Exposure at default.
C. Loss given default.
D. Probability of default.
Answer: D

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Pass4Test offre une formation sur GED GED-Reading GED-Science matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: GED-Reading
Nom d'Examen: GED (GED Reasoning Through Language Arts (Language Arts - Reading))
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

Code d'Examen: GED-Science
Nom d'Examen: GED (GED Science Exam)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 A scientist uses a laboratory mouse to complete an experiment involving a maze. During each
trial, the mouse runs through the maze, and the scientist counts the number of errors that the mouse
makes before it reaches the end of the maze. The mouse goes through the maze a total of six times.
The scientist's data are shown in the table at the left.
Based on the information and graph, which statement is the best interpretation?
A. The mouse made more errors after completing several runs through the maze.
B. The mouse made the same number of errors during each run through the maze.
C. The mouse reduced the number of errors made during the six runs through the maze.
D. The number of errors that the mouse made decreased an equal amount during each subsequent
run through the maze.
E. The number of errors that the mouse made varied erratically during the six runs through the maze.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Making products from recycled materials, such as aluminum cans, glass, and plastic usually
saves energy and other resources. For example, it takes about 75% less energy to make steel from
scrap than from ore. All forms of recycling involve some energy to produce the recycled materials, a
process that also results in the production of some pollution.
The chart at the left shows the energy savings from recycling.
When Anil is at the grocery store, he can choose to buy juice in a glass bottle, an aluminum can, a
plastic jug, a juice box (paper), or foil-covered juice container.
If Anil's community requires that he recycles, which container would provide the MOST overall
energy savings?
A. aluminum can
B. plastic jug
C. waxy, cardboard juice box
D. glass bottle
E. foil-covered container
Answer: A

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NO.3 During food digestion, nutrients are broken down through mechanical and chemical processes.
The mechanical phase of digestion begins when you take a bite of food. Food is then physically
broken down into smaller particles so that digestive enzymes can act. Chemical digestion involves a
change in the chemical nature of nutrients so that they can be broken down further and absorbed
into the bloodstream.
Which digestive activity is an example of chemical digestion?
A. cutting and tearing the food by front teeth
B. grinding and chewing the food by back teeth
C. churning the food in the stomach by the stomach muscles
D. swallowing the food
E. digestive enzymes breaking down complex molecules of protein
Answer: E

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NO.4 Cholera is a disease caused by a bacterium that is transmitted by water, shellfish, and raw
vegetables. The major symptom is severe diarrhea. Epidemics of cholera in the Americas, common in
the 19th century, are much less frequent now with the advent of modern medicine and improved
methods of hygiene.
However, in 1991, the number of cholera epidemics increased again in one South American country,
causing over 4000 deaths.
The high number of cases of cholera in the South American country noted above was most probably
due to which factor?
A. prolonged smoking of cigarettes
B. lack of variety in foods
C. poor water and sewage treatment
D. eating the wrong kinds of foods
E. widespread overuse of antibiotics
Answer: C

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NO.5 A newly hatched chicken will peck at any spots on the ground that are a color different from
the ground. This behavior is instinctive and only about 15 percent of the pecks lead to food. However,
with time, the chick's accuracy in using pecks to pick up food improves.
To what can we attribute this more accurate feeding behavior?
A. The mother hen instructed the young chick.
B. Information was obtained from other chicks.
C. Trial and error on the part of the chick improved feeding success.
D. More food was made available to the chick.
E. The chick competed with other chicks.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The greenhouse effect explains why a car's interior can get hot on a sunny day even if it is cool
outside. The glass windows allow the Sun's rays to pass through to the interior but
prevent heat rays from escaping to the outside. Certain gases, such as carbon dioxide and nitrous
oxide, act like the glass in a greenhouse when they are present in the atmosphere.
Both natural and human activities lead to the release of gases that contribute to the greenhouse
effect. During recent summers, forest fires have contributed to the loss of millions of acres of forest.
These fires have resulted in the release of smoke and ash as well as greenhouse gases.
Based on the information, which statement most likely predicts the result of ongoing widespread
forest fires?
A. Forest fires are unlikely to affect atmospheric temperature.
B. Forest fires decrease the amount of atmospheric greenhouse gases.
C. Greenhouse gases could help form new animal species.
D. There could be a gradual increase in average atmospheric temperatures.
E. There could be a gradual decrease in average atmospheric temperatures.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The pH of a liquid is a measure of its acidity or its alkalinity. Even small changes in pH of human
blood can cause very serious health problems.
Carbon dioxide (CO2), is one of the dissolved gases present in healthy blood. CO2 normally mixes
with the water in blood to form a mild acid, carbonic acid, which lowers the blood pH.If a health
problem causes the dissolved carbon dioxide to increase or decrease, the blood's pH would change
and could produce an unhealthy pH level.
Based on this information, which statement best summarizes the blood condition that might result
when an individual has a respiratory condition that causes the blood to contain too much CO2?
A. The blood pH will remain the same.
B. The blood pH will be lowered.
C. The blood will be less acidic.
D. The blood's white cell count will be greatly decreased.
E. The blood will clot more quickly.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The following symbols represent a shortcut for representing an element. For example, O
stands for oxygen, H for hydrogen, and C for carbon. H2O is the formula for water. The subscript 2 in
the formula indicates that there are two atoms of hydrogen in a water molecule. If there is no
subscript after a symbol, the subscript is assumed to be one. Therefore, one molecule of water
contains three atoms: two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
Based on the information, how many atoms are represented in C12H22O11?
A. 3
B. 11
C. 12
D. 22
E. 45
Answer: E

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Meilleur Liferay LRP-614 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: LRP-614
Nom d'Examen: Liferay (Portal Developer)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 To display a success message in a JSP use:
A. <liferay-ui:success message="part-deleted-successfully" />
B. <liferay-ui:success key= "part-deleted-successfully" />
C. <alloy-ui:success key="part-deleted'' message="part-deleted-successfully" />
D. <liferay-ui:success key= "part-deleted" message="part-deleted-successfully" />
Answer: D

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NO.2 Liferay's core JavaScript framework is:
A. jQuery
B. Dojo
C. MooTools
D. AlloyUI
E. YUI
Answer: D

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NO.3 In portal.properties:
login,events.post=\ com.liferay.portal.events.ChannelLoginPostActionA,\
com.liferay.portal.events.Defaultl_andingPageAction,\ com.liferay.portal.events.LoginPostAction
A hook plugin can insert a new class between DefaultLandingPageAction and LoginPostAction.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 The recommended way to add new functionality in Liferay is to:
A. Create Ext plugins
B. Createportlet, theme, layout template or hook plugins
C. Modify Liferay's source code directly
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Public render parameters are of the type:
A. List
B. RenderParameter
C. String
D. Object
E. RenderRequest
Answer: C

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NO.6 The descriptor liferay-portlet.xml:
A. Defines Liferay-specific portlet features
B. Defines the categories of the Add Application menu
C. Identifies portlets that only run onLiferay
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.7 The recommended way to add support for a new locale is to:
A. Create an Ext plugin that adds a language properties file for the desired locale
B. Create an Ext plugin that adds a language properties file for the desired locale and implements a
servlet filter mapping using IlSnFilter
C. Create a hook plugin that adds a language properties file for the desired locale and implements a
servlet filter hook to invoke IlSnFilter through PortalClassLoaderFilter
D. Create a portlet plugin that overrides the core language filter to recognize the desired locale
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator would like to add a new travel preferences section in the Miscellaneous
section of the user form.
The travel preferences are stored as custom fields.
The recommended way to implement the solution using a hook plugin is to:(Please select all correct
answers.)
A. Modify html/portlet/users_admin/edit_user.jsp to add the travel preferences section to
theMiscellaneous section
B. Set the portal property "users.form. my.account, miscellaneous"to "travel-preferences" and add
the corresponding JSP
C. Create a Struts action hook to persist the Expando value to the database
D. Add the custom fields to the relevant JSP using <liferay-ui;custom-attribute>
Answer: B,D

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Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH))
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH) CDH5 Upgrade Exam)
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Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Data Science Essentials Beta)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Choose three reasons why should you run the HDFS balancer periodically?
A. To ensure that there is capacity in HDFS for additional data
B. To ensure that all blocks in the cluster are 128MB in size
C. To help HDFS deliver consistent performance under heavy loads
D. To ensure that there is consistent disk utilization across the DataNodes
E. To improve data locality MapReduce
Answer: D

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Explanation:
NOTE: There is only one correct answer in the options for this question. Please check the following
reference:
http://www.quora.com/Apache-Hadoop/It-is-recommended-that-you-run-the-HDFSbalancer-period
ically-Why-Choose-3

NO.2 You observed that the number of spilled records from Map tasks far exceeds the number of
map output records. Your child heap size is 1GB and your io.sort.mb value is set to 1000MB. How
would you tune your io.sort.mb value to achieve maximum memory to disk I/O ratio?
A. For a 1GB child heap size an io.sort.mb of 128 MB will always maximize memory to disk I/O
B. Increase the io.sort.mb to 1GB
C. Decrease the io.sort.mb value to 0
D. Tune the io.sort.mb value until you observe that the number of spilled records equals (or is as
close to equals) the number of map output records.
Answer: D

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NO.3 On a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2) on YARN, a MapReduce job is given a directory of
10 plain text files as its input directory. Each file is made up of 3 HDFS blocks. How many Mappers
will run?
A. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the ResourceManager
B. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the developer
C. 30
D. 3
E. 10
F. We cannot say; the number of mappers is determined by the ApplicationMaster
Answer: E

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NO.4 Your Hadoop cluster is configuring with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can
you configure a worker node to run a NodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still
have a functional cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Map tasks only
D. Yes. The daemon will receive Reducer tasks only
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are planning a Hadoop cluster and considering implementing 10 Gigabit Ethernet as the
network fabric.
Which workloads benefit the most from faster network fabric?
A. When your workload generates a large amount of output data, significantly larger than the
amount of intermediate data
B. When your workload consumes a large amount of input data, relative to the entire capacity if
HDFS
C. When your workload consists of processor-intensive tasks
D. When your workload generates a large amount of intermediate data, on the order of the input
data itself
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are running a Hadoop cluster with a NameNode on host mynamenode, a secondary
NameNode on host mysecondarynamenode and several DataNodes.
Which best describes how you determine when the last checkpoint happened?
A. Execute hdfs namenode -report on the command line and look at the Last Checkpoint
information
B. Execute hdfs dfsadmin -saveNamespace on the command line which returns to you the last
checkpoint value in fstime file
C. Connect to the web UI of the Secondary NameNode (http://mysecondary:50090/) and look at the
"Last Checkpoint" information
D. Connect to the web UI of the NameNode (http://mynamenode:50070) and look at the "Last
Checkpoint" information
Answer: B

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Reference:https://www.inkling.com/read/hadoop-definitive-guide-tom-white-3rd/chapter10/hdfs

NO.7 For each YARN job, the Hadoop framework generates task log file. Where are Hadoop task log
files stored?
A. Cached by the NodeManager managing the job containers, then written to a log directory on the
NameNode
B. Cached in the YARN container running the task, then copied into HDFS on job completion
C. In HDFS, in the directory of the user who generates the job
D. On the local disk of the slave mode running the task
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have installed a cluster HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You have no
dfs.hosts entry(ies) in your hdfs-site.xml configuration file. You configure a new worker node by
setting fs.default.name in its configuration files to point to the NameNode on your cluster, and you
start the DataNode daemon on that worker node. What do you have to do on the cluster to allow
the worker node to join, and start sorting HDFS blocks?
A. Without creating a dfs.hosts file or making any entries, run the commands
hadoop.dfsadmin-refreshModes on the NameNode
B. Restart the NameNode
C. Creating a dfs.hosts file on the NameNode, add the worker Node's name to it, then issue the
command hadoop dfsadmin -refresh Nodes = on the Namenode
D. Nothing; the worker node will automatically join the cluster when NameNode daemon is started
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-331
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Connect Pro 7)
Questions et réponses: 42 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-313
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Photoshop CS6 Recertification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the meeting Host. What happens when you end a meeting?
A. All attendees, including the host are removed from the room
B. Only participants are removed from the room
C. Only the Presenter is removed from the room
D. Only the Host is removed from the room
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement about using the Outline pane is true?
A. The Outline pane does NOT display slide titles.
B. The Outline pane can be used to navigate the presentation.
C. The Outline pane displays notes for the selected slide.
D. The Outline pane does NOT display slide times.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference :http://help.adobe.com/en_US/Presenter/7.0/WS3a32668ae8e7984c61736e10b1fbedba
f7f59.html

NO.3 You want to use the Audio Setup Wizard to set up your microphone. Which two tasks can
you perform? (Choose two).
A. Test the connection to your telephone
B. Reduce background noise
C. Select audio waveforms
D. Test microphone
E. Grant users access to your microphone
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Which statement about using a whiteboard overlay within a presentation is true?
A. You can use the whiteboard toggle to add and remove tools.
B. You can use the whiteboard tools to zoom in to an area of a document.
C. A whiteboard overlay is associated with a specific page of content.
D. You can directly save what you add to a whiteboard.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which activity CANNOT be completed by using the Breakout Room configurator?
A. Add additional breakout rooms
B. Assign attendees to any of the breakout rooms
C. Move breakout pods into the main meeting room
D. Begin and end breakout rooms
Answer: C

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NO.6 You want to load an image into your Share pod. What should you do?
A. Paste the image from your clipboard
B. Paste the image from your meeting room
C. Load the image from the Content library
D. Load the image from a website
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.case.edu/its/training/materials/connect/AD_CON_AddContent.pdf

NO.7 When can meeting rooms be used?
A. Any time after the meeting room is created
B. Onlyat the time you specified
C. Meeting rooms can only be used one time
D. Only on the date that you created the meeting room
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement about using the pause and annotate mode is true?
A. You are returned to the application that is being shared
B. Your audio and video is paused
C. A snapshot of the screen share is taken with a whiteboard overlay
D. The Share pod is minimized
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM DB2 11 DBA for z/OS)
Questions et réponses: 67 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Application Integration Middleware L1 Support Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

Code d'Examen: M2080-713
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Mobile Customer Engagement Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following outputs can brands distribute messages through using IBM Xtify?
A. Mobile App Push. Mobile Web Push, Passbook,SMS
B. Mobile App Push. Mobile Web Push only
C. SMS. Mobile App Push only
D. Mobile App Push only
Answer: A

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Explanation:
XtifyCapabilitiesinclude:
Real time mobile engagement platform for apppush, web push, SMS, and wallet

NO.2 Which of the following features makes it easy for IBM Xtifyto integrate with CRM by helping
aggregate data across various channels?
A. XRD
B. XID
C. XCD
D. XPI
Answer: B

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Explanation:
*XID, a unique identifier assigned to each individual app, links cross-channel disparate data sources
to yield actionable customer insight *The IBM Mobile Push Notification Push API allows you to
immediately send a message to a set of users that you can select by XID, positive or negative tags, or
a "send to all" flag. By exposing our push interface via API, you can generate timely one-off
notifications and event-based messages from within your own service either by hand or
automatically.

NO.3 What does IBM Xtify allow Marketers to do?
A. Advanced segmentation and real-time targeting
B. View performance and channel analytics
C. Deliver user level data for systems insight generation
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* Advanced segmentation for 1:1 messaging, personalization, and real-time decisioning *View
performance analytics and channel data in marketer dashboard *Import user-level data to other
systems for insight generation
Push notifications offer marketers a way toinfluence intent, inform customers, and learn about
mobile users.
*Real-time segmenting, targeting, andengagement of your mobile sitevisitors.

NO.4 Does a user have to "opt in" to receive a notification in the browser inbox?
A. Yes, users must opt in.
B. No, users do not have to opt in.
C. Yes, users must opt in and also download the mobile app.
D. Users cannot receive notifications in a browser inbox.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Inbox-Only Notifications
Deliver rich push messageswithout interrupting users.
These messages can bedelivered even if a user has notopted into push.

NO.5 Which of the following rules can be set to trigger messages?
A. User location, userpreference, user behavior, dayand time
B. User location and user preference only
C. User location, dayand time only
D. User location and user behavior only
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the selling style of IBM Xtify?
A. Aggressive
B. Consultative
C. Misinformed
D. Weak
Answer: B

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